ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct technique when administering topical nitroglycerin ointment is to remove the old ointment before applying new ointment. This is important to prevent an accumulation of the medication on the skin, which can lead to an overdose. It is crucial to follow the prescribed instructions for applying topical medications to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 2 of 5
A 26-year-old man with a chronic cough takes codeine for cough suppression. He presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. The patient admits to taking this medication three times daily even when he does not have symptoms. The treating physician must be concerned about which of the following effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Codeine, an opioid, risks addiction with frequent use. Diarrhea opposes its constipating effect. Euphoria and anxiety are possible but less concerning. Sweating (E) is minor. Addiction potential drives monitoring, given his overuse pattern.
Question 3 of 5
A 60-year-old woman has ulcerative colitis resistant to aminosalicylates and topical corticosteroids. It is decided to treat her with systemic corticosteroids. Which of the following is not a likely complication of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone) for ulcerative colitis cause side effects. Osteoporosis results from reduced bone formation over time. Diabetes stems from glucocorticoid-induced hyperglycemia. Hypertension occurs via sodium retention and vasoconstriction. Mood changes are common due to CNS effects. Weight loss isn't typical; corticosteroids cause weight gain from increased appetite and fat redistribution, making it the exception. This reflects their metabolic impact, requiring monitoring in chronic use.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been receiving intravenous heparin. When laboratory tests are drawn, the nurse has difficulty
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin, which is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of bleeding or elevated PTT/aPTT levels. It works by binding to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant activity. Therefore, in this scenario where the patient is experiencing bloody stools, abdominal pain, and has elevated PTT/aPTT levels, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain an order for protamine sulfate to reverse the effects of heparin. This will help normalize the patient's coagulation profile and manage any bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy.
Question 5 of 5
When assessing a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic, the nurse looks for the manifestations of potassium deficiency, which would include what symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause potassium deficiency (hypokalemia), leading to symptoms such as muscle weakness. The other symptoms listed, including dyspnea, constipation, tinnitus, anorexia, and lethargy, are not typically associated with potassium deficiency.