ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Chapter 11 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Removing the old ointment ensures proper absorption and effectiveness of the new dose. 2. Residual ointment can lead to an overdose if not removed. 3. Mixing old and new ointment can alter the desired therapeutic effect. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect. The ointment should be applied on a specific area, not just anywhere on the skin. B: Incorrect. Nitroglycerin ointment is used for prevention and treatment, not just during angina episodes. D: Incorrect. Massaging the ointment can alter absorption, and covering with plastic wrap can increase absorption and risk of side effects.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse will teach a patient who is receiving oral iron supplements to watch for which expected adverse effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Black, tarry stools. Iron supplements commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects, including constipation and dark-colored stools. The black, tarry stools indicate the presence of iron in the stool. Palpitations (A) are not a common side effect of oral iron supplements. Drowsiness and dizziness (B) are not typically associated with iron supplementation. Orange-red discoloration of the urine (D) is a side effect of medications like phenazopyridine, not iron supplements. It is important to monitor for black, tarry stools as it may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding.
Question 3 of 5
The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively reabsorbed:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Drugs with high glomerular filtration rate are quickly filtered into the renal tubules, and those actively secreted enhance elimination. Furthermore, not being passively reabsorbed prevents reabsorption into the bloodstream, leading to rapid elimination. Choice B is incorrect because it contradicts the concept of rapid drug elimination based on renal processes. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide any information. Choice D is incorrect because not all drugs have high glomerular filtration rate, active secretion, and lack of passive reabsorption, which are key factors for rapid elimination.
Question 4 of 5
Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: 1. Procaine is an ester-type local anesthetic derived from paraaminobenzoic acid. 2. Esters of paraaminobenzoic acid have the suffix "-caine" in their generic names. 3. Mepivacaine, lidocaine, and cocaine are all amide-type local anesthetics. 4. Cocaine is derived from the coca plant and not from paraaminobenzoic acid.
Question 5 of 5
A M-cholinimimetic agent is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pilocarpine. Pilocarpine is a M-cholinomimetic agent because it selectively activates muscarinic receptors. It is commonly used to treat conditions like glaucoma by causing pupillary constriction and lowering intraocular pressure. Carbachol (A) and Bethanechol (D) are non-selective cholinomimetics, affecting both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. Acetylcholine (C) is not a practical drug due to its rapid degradation by acetylcholinesterase.