ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When the LPN is assisting the patient to use an incentive spirometer, which of the following actions by the patient indicates that the patient needs further teaching on how to use the spirometer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because exhaling deeply before using the spirometer is incorrect. The purpose of the incentive spirometer is to encourage deep inhalation to improve lung function. Exhaling deeply before using the spirometer goes against this goal and may hinder the effectiveness of the device. Choices A, B, and C are all correct actions when using the spirometer. Taking two normal breaths helps to prepare the lungs, sitting upright optimizes lung expansion, and inhaling deeply to reach the target helps to improve lung ventilation.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following guidelines should a nursing instructor provide to nursing students who are now responsible for assessing their clients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous assessment allows for timely identification of changes in the client's condition. This is crucial for providing appropriate and timely interventions. Assessing the client only at specific times (choices B and C) may lead to missing important changes. Choice D is incorrect because assessments should not be limited to physician rounds; they should be ongoing to ensure comprehensive care.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with a pelvic fracture on bed rest. Which goal statement is realistic for the nurse to assign to this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is a realistic goal for a patient with a pelvic fracture on bed rest. The patient needs to use a walker correctly to ambulate safely to the bathroom, which promotes mobility and independence while ensuring safety. This goal is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. Choice A is incorrect because increasing activity level may not be safe or feasible for a patient with a pelvic fracture. Choice B is incorrect as turning every 2 hours may not be necessary or practical for this patient. Choice D is incorrect as using a sliding board may not be appropriate or necessary for someone with a pelvic fracture.
Question 4 of 9
There are several risk factors with developing cancer. The following are risk factors of cancer, except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ordinal petition in the family is not a recognized risk factor for developing cancer. Age is a well-known risk factor as cancer incidence increases with age. Race can also influence cancer risk due to genetic and environmental factors. Lifestyle choices such as smoking, diet, and physical activity can significantly impact the likelihood of developing cancer. In contrast, ordinal petition in the family does not have a direct association with cancer risk.
Question 5 of 9
Which food should be avoided by the patient on a low-sodium diet?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cheese. Cheese is high in sodium and should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Sodium can contribute to high blood pressure and other health issues. Apples, chicken, and broccoli are all low in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Cheese is the only option that is high in sodium, making it the correct choice to avoid.
Question 6 of 9
How many drops per minute should be delivered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication. Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate
Question 7 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.
Question 8 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. The rationale is that the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates anxiety about leaving the hospital setting. This subjective data suggests that the patient may not feel ready for discharge despite stable vital signs and nearly healed incision. Choices A and B are incorrect because they assume the patient's readiness for self-care without considering emotional factors. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the surgery was unsuccessful.
Question 9 of 9
A mother brings her children into the clinic and they are diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother had chickenpox as a child and is not concerned with contracting the disease when caring for her children. what type of immunity does this mother have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active natural immunity. The mother had chickenpox as a child, which triggered her immune system to produce antibodies, providing long-lasting protection. This is an example of active immunity because her immune system actively responded to the pathogen. Summary: B: Passive artificial immunity - This involves receiving pre-made antibodies, not produced by the individual's immune system. C: Passive natural immunity - This is acquired through placental transfer or breastfeeding, not through prior exposure to the pathogen. D: Active artificial immunity - This is acquired through vaccination, not through natural exposure to the pathogen.