Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

When the lecture presentation was finished, the CI proceeded with the _______.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an open forum to solicit questions related to the topic under discussion is a common practice after a lecture presentation. This allows for clarification and deeper understanding. Choice A is incorrect as evaluation usually comes after the lecture. Choice B is incorrect because the Q&A portion typically focuses on the lecture content only. Choice D is incorrect as cracking humorous anecdotes is not a standard practice after a lecture.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.

Question 4 of 5

Treatment of a patient without consent can constitute which is defined as intentional and unwanting touching.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: battery. Battery is the intentional and unwanted touching of another person without their consent, which can include medical treatment without consent. This is a clear violation of the patient's autonomy and can lead to legal consequences. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional touching. Slander (C) is making false spoken statements that harm someone's reputation. Tort (D) is a broader term referring to civil wrongs, including battery, but not specifically addressing intentional and unwanted touching.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Central retinal artery occlusion. This condition presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, cherry-red spot at the macula due to lack of blood flow, and attenuated retinal vessels. The cherry-red spot is due to the transparency of the fovea when there is ischemia in the surrounding retina. Central retinal vein occlusion (B) presents with sudden vision loss accompanied by retinal hemorrhages and dilated tortuous veins. Retinal detachment (C) typically presents with sudden flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like visual field defect. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (D) presents with severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil.

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