ATI RN
Health Care Utilization by Age Group Questions
Question 1 of 5
When teaching a patient with binge-purge bulimia, the nurse should give priority to information about:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Symptoms of hypokalemia. This is the priority because individuals with binge-purge bulimia often have electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Educating the patient on recognizing symptoms of hypokalemia, such as weakness, fatigue, and irregular heartbeats, is crucial for early intervention. A: Self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake is important but not the priority when dealing with potential life-threatening complications like hypokalemia. B: Establishing the desired daily weight gain is not appropriate for individuals with binge-purge bulimia as the focus should be on addressing the underlying psychological issues rather than weight gain. D: Self-esteem maintenance is important in the long term but does not take precedence over addressing immediate health risks such as hypokalemia.
Question 2 of 5
During a manic episode, a patient is hyperactive, restless, and disorganized. The patient goes to the dining room and begins to throw food and dishes. Verbal intervention is ineffective. The patient's behavior poses a substantial risk of harm to others. Staff escorts the patient to the patient's room to dine alone. What is the rationale for this action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce environmental stimuli that negatively affect the patient. This action helps reduce stimulation that may be exacerbating the manic episode, promoting a calmer environment for the patient. Removing the patient from the dining room minimizes triggers for further disruptive behavior. This approach prioritizes the patient's well-being by managing the environmental factors contributing to the escalation of symptoms. A: Preventing other patients from observing the behavior does not directly address the patient's needs during the manic episode and does not actively help in managing the situation. C: Protecting the patient's biological integrity until medication takes effect may be important, but in this scenario, the immediate focus is on addressing the environmental factors contributing to the behavior. D: Reinforcing limit setting is important in managing behavior, but in this specific situation, reducing environmental stimuli is a more immediate and effective intervention.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with acute mania dances atop a pool table, waves a cue in one hand, and says, "I'll throw the pool balls if anyone comes near me." The nurse's first intervention is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking the patient to seclusion ensures safety for both the patient and others. This intervention controls the immediate risk of harm from the patient's unpredictable behavior. Telling the patient (choice A) may escalate the situation. Removing the patient from the pool table (choice C) may not address the underlying threat. Clearing the room of all other patients (choice D) is not the priority; ensuring immediate safety is paramount in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A 19-year-old client is admitted for the second time in 9 months and is acutely psychotic with a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia. The client sits alone rubbing her arms and smiling. She tells the nurse her thoughts cause earthquakes and that the world is burning. The nurse assesses the primary deficit associated with the client's condition as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed thinking. This is because the client's belief that her thoughts cause earthquakes and the world is burning indicates a break from reality, a hallmark of psychosis in schizophrenia. This demonstrates disorganized and illogical thinking, a key symptom of disturbed thinking. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Altered mood states typically refer to emotional disturbances, which are not the primary deficit in this scenario; C) Social isolation is a consequence of the client's symptoms but not the primary deficit; D) Poor impulse control is not the primary deficit in this case as the client's behavior is more indicative of disorganized thinking.
Question 5 of 5
A client admitted with delusions, hallucinations, and thought disorder has the admitting diagnosis schizophreniform disorder R/O organic pathology. Based on this information, the nurse can expect that the client will:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The client is admitted with symptoms suggestive of a psychotic disorder, specifically schizophreniform disorder. Step 2: The admitting diagnosis includes ruling out organic pathology, indicating a need to investigate potential physical causes. Step 3: An MRI test is a non-invasive imaging procedure that can help identify any structural abnormalities in the brain. Step 4: This test is appropriate in ruling out organic causes of the symptoms presented by the client. Step 5: Psychological testing (Choice B) is more focused on assessing cognitive and emotional functioning, not ruling out organic pathology. Step 6: Immunologic assay (Choice C) is used to detect antibodies or antigens in the blood, not typically relevant in this context. Step 7: Dexamethasone suppression test (Choice D) is used to assess for abnormalities related to cortisol levels in conditions like depression, not specific to ruling out organic pathology in psychotic disorders. Summary: Choice A is correct because an MRI test is the most relevant