ATI RN
ANCC Cardiovascular Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
When teaching a client with an aneurysm what signs and symptoms may indicate impending rupture, the nurse considers which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Size and location of the aneurysm. Monitoring the size and location of the aneurysm is crucial in determining the risk of rupture. Larger aneurysms in critical locations are more likely to rupture. This information guides healthcare providers in making informed decisions about interventions to prevent rupture. Explanation of other choices: A: Medication therapy the client is receiving - While medication therapy may be important in managing symptoms or risk factors associated with an aneurysm, it does not directly indicate impending rupture. B: Client's usual blood pressure - Blood pressure management is important in preventing complications of an aneurysm, but it does not specifically signal impending rupture. C: Age and gender of the client - While age and gender may influence the risk of developing an aneurysm, they do not indicate impending rupture.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is suspected of having a decreased cardiac output due to dysrhythmias. Which of the following assessments would be included in a decreased cardiac output? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated jugular venous distention. This is a classic sign of decreased cardiac output as it indicates increased central venous pressure due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood. This results in blood backing up into the jugular veins, causing them to appear distended. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: Polyuria is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output. Polyuria is excessive urination and is more commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or diabetes mellitus. C: Full and bounding pulses are not indicative of decreased cardiac output. In fact, decreased cardiac output often leads to weak and thready pulses due to reduced blood flow. D: Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, can occur in various conditions but is not a specific sign of decreased cardiac output. It can be seen in response to pain, anxiety, or fever.
Question 3 of 5
If a hypertensive client with asthma takes the maximal dose of his diuretic and his blood pressure still isn't controlled, the nurse understands the next step in controlling his hypertension would be to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. ACE inhibitors like enalapril are recommended as second-line therapy for hypertension. 2. ACE inhibitors are effective in managing hypertension in patients with asthma. 3. Adding another diuretic may lead to electrolyte imbalances. 4. Beta blockers like Metoprolol may worsen asthma symptoms. 5. Increasing drug dosage above recommended levels can be harmful and ineffective. Summary: Adding enalapril is the best choice as it is effective, safe in asthma, and avoids potential adverse effects of other options like beta blockers or excessive diuretics.
Question 4 of 5
Which order should the nurse question?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the nurse to question is A: The addition of a loop diuretic with digoxin. This is because loop diuretics can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur when potassium levels are low. Therefore, the nurse should question this order to prevent potential harm to the patient. Summary: - B: The addition of a beta blocker with digoxin: Beta blockers can also increase the risk of digoxin toxicity but it is not as directly related to potassium levels as loop diuretics. - C: A digoxin dose of 0.125 mg per day: This is within the recommended therapeutic range for digoxin and does not directly impact the risk of toxicity with loop diuretics. - D: The addition of an ACE inhibitor with digoxin: ACE inhibitors can also increase the risk of digoxin toxicity, but the priority in this case is
Question 5 of 5
The client is being given a cardio-selective beta blocker because of which possible reasons? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dysrhythmias. Cardio-selective beta blockers are commonly used to manage dysrhythmias by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, helping to regulate the heart rate and rhythm. This is achieved by blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart, without affecting beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Incorrect choices: A: Hypotension - Beta blockers can actually worsen hypotension by reducing the heart rate and cardiac output. B: Hypertension - While beta blockers can be used to treat hypertension, cardio-selective beta blockers are not typically the first choice for this condition. D: Cardiac arrest - Beta blockers are used in some cases to prevent cardiac arrest, but they are not the primary treatment for this emergency situation.