When starting therapy with raloxifene, a client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

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ATI Pharmacology 2016 Practice Exam A Questions

Question 1 of 5

When starting therapy with raloxifene, a client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hot flashes. When initiating therapy with raloxifene, clients should be advised to monitor for hot flashes as they are a common adverse effect associated with this medication. Monitoring for this symptom can help in managing and addressing the side effects of raloxifene effectively.

Question 2 of 5

A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, specifically with cyclophosphamide use in a client with breast cancer, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor for potential adverse effects. The correct answer is D) Hemorrhagic cystitis. Cyclophosphamide, an alkylating agent, is known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis, which is characterized by bladder irritation leading to hematuria. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to prevent complications and provide timely interventions. Option A) Hypertension is incorrect because cyclophosphamide is not typically associated with hypertension as a side effect. Option B) Hyperglycemia is also incorrect as it is not a common adverse effect of cyclophosphamide. Option C) Ototoxicity is not associated with cyclophosphamide use, making it an incorrect choice. Educationally, understanding the side effects and monitoring parameters for specific medications is crucial for nurses to ensure patient safety and optimize outcomes. By knowing the expected side effects of medications like cyclophosphamide, nurses can implement proactive monitoring and interventions, enhancing the quality of care provided to patients undergoing cancer treatment.

Question 3 of 5

A client is starting therapy with topotecan. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Sore throat. When a client is starting therapy with topotecan, a topoisomerase inhibitor commonly used in chemotherapy, it is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs of infection promptly. Topotecan can suppress the bone marrow, leading to decreased production of white blood cells, increasing the risk of infection. Therefore, a sore throat could be indicative of an infection that needs immediate attention to prevent complications. Option A) Hair loss is a common side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, including topotecan, but it is not typically a sign of an urgent or serious issue that requires immediate reporting. Option B) Fatigue is also a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not specific to topotecan. While it is important for the nurse to address fatigue, it is not the most critical finding to report immediately in this case. Option D) Red urine is a known side effect of topotecan due to its excretion pathway, but it is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless accompanied by other symptoms like pain or difficulty urinating. In an educational context, understanding the side effects and potential complications of chemotherapy drugs like topotecan is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care to clients undergoing cancer treatment. Teaching clients to recognize and report early signs of infection is vital in preventing serious complications and ensuring timely intervention.

Question 4 of 5

A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the side effects and monitoring parameters for specific medications is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In the case of capecitabine, a chemotherapy medication, the nurse should monitor for neutropenia. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy drugs like capecitabine, which suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decrease in neutrophils, an essential type of white blood cell responsible for fighting infections. Option A, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with capecitabine and is more commonly seen with medications like corticosteroids or certain antipsychotics. Option B, hypocalcemia, is not a known side effect of capecitabine but may occur with medications that affect calcium metabolism or parathyroid function. Option D, bradycardia, is not a common side effect of capecitabine but may be seen with medications that affect cardiac conduction. Understanding the specific side effects of medications helps nurses provide comprehensive care by monitoring for and managing potential complications. In oncology, monitoring for neutropenia is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety during cancer treatment.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Warfarin. Which of the following dietary instructions should the provider include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, should be limited in the diet of individuals taking Warfarin to maintain a consistent level of the medication's effectiveness.

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