ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87°F (30.6°C), which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When rewarming a hypothermic patient, the goal is to gradually increase their core temperature. A core temperature of 94°F (34.4°C) is still below the normal range, but it indicates that the rewarming process is working. Shivering (A) is a normal response to rewarming. A decrease in blood pressure (B) may be expected due to peripheral vasodilation during rewarming. Developing atrial fibrillation (C) may be a concern but does not necessarily indicate that rewarming should be discontinued. Therefore, choice D is correct as it signifies progress in the rewarming process.
Question 2 of 9
The removal of plasma water and some low–molecular weight particles by using a pressure or osmotic gradient is known as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ultrafiltration is the correct answer because it involves the removal of plasma water and low-molecular weight particles by using a pressure or osmotic gradient. During ultrafiltration, the pressure gradient pushes the fluid through a semipermeable membrane, separating the substances based on their molecular size. This process allows for the selective removal of unwanted substances while retaining essential components. Dialysis (choice A) involves the removal of waste products from the blood, but it does not specifically target plasma water and low-molecular weight particles. Diffusion (choice B) is the passive movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration and is not specific to the removal of plasma water. Clearance (choice C) refers to the rate at which a substance is removed from the blood and does not involve the mechanism of pressure or osmotic gradient utilized in ultrafiltration.
Question 3 of 9
Which is the most important outcome for a patient receiving palliative care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in symptoms and quality of life. In palliative care, the primary focus is on enhancing the patient's quality of life by managing symptoms and providing comfort. This is achieved through effective symptom control, psychosocial support, and improving overall well-being. Complete resolution of the underlying disease (A) is often not possible in palliative care as the focus shifts from curative treatments to comfort care. Increased adherence to curative treatments (C) may not be the main goal in palliative care, as the emphasis is on improving the patient's comfort rather than prolonging life. Achievement of long-term survival goals (D) is not typically the primary outcome in palliative care, as the focus is on providing support and care for patients with life-limiting illnesses.
Question 4 of 9
Which statement is true regarding the impact of culture on end-of-life decision making?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Culture and religious beliefs can significantly impact end-of-life decision making by influencing values, beliefs, and preferences. 2. These factors may affect choices related to treatment options, quality of life, and spiritual aspects. 3. Different cultural backgrounds may lead to varying perspectives on autonomy, family involvement, and medical interventions. 4. Option A and B make generalizations based on race, which is not accurate as preferences can vary widely within any racial group. 5. Option D is incorrect as perspectives on end-of-life care can vary even within the same religious group due to individual beliefs and interpretations.
Question 5 of 9
Which action is a priority for the nurse to take when the low-pressure alarm sounds for a patient who has an arterial line in the left radial artery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): When the low-pressure alarm sounds for a patient with an arterial line, the nurse should assess for cardiac dysrhythmias first. This is because a sudden drop in pressure could indicate a serious issue affecting the heart's ability to pump effectively. Identifying and addressing any cardiac dysrhythmias promptly is crucial for patient safety. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Fast flush of the arterial line - This would not address the underlying cause of the low-pressure alarm and may not be necessary. B: Check the left hand for pallor - While assessing perfusion is important, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac issue. D: Rezero the monitoring equipment - While important for accuracy, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac concern.
Question 6 of 9
A patient in hospice care is experiencing dyspnea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer oxygen as prescribed. Dyspnea in a hospice patient often indicates respiratory distress, and administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulty. Positioning the patient flat on their back (A) may worsen dyspnea due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. Restricting fluid intake (C) is not appropriate as dehydration can exacerbate respiratory distress. Chest physiotherapy (D) may not be suitable for a hospice patient experiencing dyspnea as it can be physically taxing and may not address the underlying cause effectively.
Question 7 of 9
A normal glomerular filtration rate is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (80 to 125 mL/min) because this range reflects the normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in adults. GFR measures the rate at which blood is filtered by the kidneys, typically around 125 mL/min. A GFR below 60 mL/min indicates kidney dysfunction, making option A incorrect. Option C (125 to 180 mL/min) is above the normal range. Option D (more than 189 mL/min) is too high and could indicate hyperfiltration, common in conditions like diabetes. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate within the normal GFR range.
Question 8 of 9
A critical care unit has decided to implement several measures designed to improve intradisciplinary and interdisciplinary collaboration. In addition to an expected improvement in patient outcomes, what is the most important effect that should resultf rom these measures?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - Improved collaboration enhances job satisfaction and reduces burnout, leading to increased staff retention. - Higher staff retention promotes continuity of care, improves team dynamics, and enhances patient outcomes. Summary: - A: Not directly related to collaboration, more about performance evaluation. - B: Manners may improve, but not the most important effect of collaboration. - D: Collaboration involves open communication, so less discussion in front of patients is not a positive outcome.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for four patients on the progressive car e unit. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the 86-year-old postoperative from colonic resection. This patient is at the greatest risk for delirium due to being elderly, having undergone surgery, and having a history of being from a nursing home. These factors contribute to an increased susceptibility to delirium. A: The 36-year-old with alcohol withdrawal may be at risk for delirium tremens, but the older age of the patient in choice C places them at higher risk. B: The 54-year-old with an elevated creatinine level postoperative is at risk for complications, but age and history of nursing home placement increase the risk for delirium in choice C. D: The 95-year-old with community-acquired pneumonia is at risk for delirium, but the combination of age, surgery, and nursing home history in choice C presents a greater risk.