ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
When reading about a drug, the nurse learns it has a median toxic dose of 50 mg. The patient has been receiving 60 mg of the drug. What analysis does the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Median toxic dose (TD50) is where 50% show toxicity-60 mg exceeds this, raising adverse effect risk (e.g., toxicity signs), not lethality for all. Effect may persist, not fail. Efficacy/potency are defined, just exceeded. Lethal dose (LD50) differs-60 mg isn't half lethal. Excess drives risk, per pharmacodynamics.
Question 2 of 9
A patient requires a high dose of a new antihypertensive medication because the new medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the extensive metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the bioavailability of the drug, necessitating a higher dose to achieve therapeutic effects. The medication does not need to pass through the bloodstream multiple times (A), nor is it primarily excreted in the kidneys (B). The drug’s effectiveness is not related to cumulative dosing (D).
Question 3 of 9
How can Ondansetron be administered? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ondansetron, commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, can be administered either orally (PO) or intravenously (IV). Both routes of administration are effective in delivering the medication to achieve the desired therapeutic effects. While options C (Subcutaneous) and D (IM) are not typically used for ondansetron administration, the correct answers are A (PO) and B (IV).
Question 4 of 9
A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct information to include when discussing possible adverse effects of beta blockers with a patient who has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism is to "Monitor your blood glucose levels for possible hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia." Beta blockers can mask the signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) in patients with diabetes by suppressing the sympathetic nervous system response to low blood sugar. This can lead to a delay in recognizing and treating hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous for diabetic patients. Additionally, beta blockers can also affect glucose metabolism and potentially worsen hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to manage these potential adverse effects and adjust the treatment regimen as needed.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is taking azithromycin. Which nursing intervention(s) would the nurse plan to implement for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that can cause hepatotoxicity, so periodic liver function tests are necessary. Intravenous azithromycin should be diluted as per protocol, typically in 250-500 mL of fluid, not 50 mL. Loose stools or diarrhea may indicate Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, a serious adverse effect. Superinfections, such as oral thrush or vaginal yeast infections, should be reported promptly. Teaching the patient to take the oral drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals ensures optimal absorption. Avoiding antacids around the time of administration prevents interference with absorption.
Question 6 of 9
A 56-year-old man with progressive, chronic renal impairment is awaiting renal replacement therapy. His treatment includes calcium carbonate tablets, furosemide, irbesartan and amlodipine. He is admitted severely unwell with a BP of 40 by palpation, pulse 112. An ECG shows a broad complex tachycardia with no P waves. Serum Ca2+ is 2.3 mmol/L, PO4 1.7 mmol/L, creatinine 785 μmol/L, Na+ 142 mmol/L, K+ 7.4 mmol/L. Which of the following would be appropriate management?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia (K+ 7.4 mmol/L) in renal failure causes broad complex tachycardia, risking arrest. Amiodarone treats arrhythmias but not hyperkalemia's cause. Digoxin is contraindicated in hyperkalemia and renal failure. IV calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes, countering potassium's depolarizing effect, appropriate immediate management. Pacing or colestyramine (potassium binder) are secondary. Calcium's rapid action protects the heart, buying time for dialysis, critical in this life-threatening scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A 37-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by a friend after consuming an entire month's supply of amitriptyline. She is tachycardic, drowsy, nauseous, and has a headache. Which of the following could the physician administer to help this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline overdose (TCA) causes anticholinergic and cardiac toxicity. Bicarbonate corrects acidosis and stabilizes sodium channels, reducing arrhythmias. Dimercaprol , Methylene blue , and Vitamin K (E) are irrelevant. Naloxone treats opioids. Bicarbonate's role in TCA overdose is critical for this presentation.
Question 8 of 9
A client is receiving methocarbamol (Robaxin) as an adjunct to physical therapy for the relief of painful muscle discomfort. Which of the following is not true regarding the use of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methocarbamol can cause urine discoloration, and rapid intravenous administration may lead to hypotension and bradycardia. However, the use of cold or allergy medicines does not lessen its side effects. The parenteral form is contraindicated in patients with liver damage due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. This statement is incorrect and not supported by the drug's pharmacology.
Question 9 of 9
When reading about a drug, the nurse learns it has a median toxic dose of 50 mg. The patient has been receiving 60 mg of the drug. What analysis does the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Median toxic dose (TD50) is where 50% show toxicity-60 mg exceeds this, raising adverse effect risk (e.g., toxicity signs), not lethality for all. Effect may persist, not fail. Efficacy/potency are defined, just exceeded. Lethal dose (LD50) differs-60 mg isn't half lethal. Excess drives risk, per pharmacodynamics.