ATI RN
Complications of antenatal care Questions
Question 1 of 5
When providing care for a patient with placenta previa, what nursing action is essential?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: assessing for signs of vaginal bleeding. In placenta previa, the placenta covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is crucial to monitor the patient's condition and detect any signs of hemorrhage. Administering oxytocin (A) can increase bleeding and is contraindicated. Assisting with a vaginal delivery (B) can be dangerous due to the placental location. Performing a vaginal exam (D) can increase bleeding and should be avoided unless necessary for an emergency situation.
Question 2 of 5
Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spontaneous termination of a pregnancy before 20 weeks is considered a miscarriage, not an abortion. Choice B is incorrect because fetal weight does not determine the classification of the termination. Choice C is incorrect as passing products of conception intact does not define the type of termination. Choice D is also incorrect as the absence of intrauterine infection does not determine if the termination is considered a spontaneous abortion.
Question 3 of 5
The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant patient who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs is crucial to determine the immediate status of both the mother and the baby. This helps in identifying any signs of distress and guiding further interventions. Monitoring uterine contractions (A) can be important too, but assessing fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs take priority for immediate evaluation. Placing clean disposable pads (C) is helpful for drainage management but not the top priority. Performing a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (D) is important for assessing blood loss but is not as immediate as assessing fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
Question 4 of 5
Which data found on a patient's health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and inflammation in the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and heavy menstrual flow are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancy. Using oral contraceptives actually reduces the risk of ectopic pregnancy by preventing ovulation and thinning the endometrial lining, making it less likely for a fertilized egg to implant outside the uterus.
Question 5 of 5
Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal deep tendon reflexes. This assessment indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate as it suggests that the medication is effectively preventing magnesium toxicity which would typically present as hyperreflexia or absent reflexes. Drowsiness (A) may indicate magnesium toxicity, urinary output of 20 mL/hour (B) may indicate renal impairment, and a respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (D) may indicate respiratory depression, all of which are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity rather than therapeutic levels.