ATI RN
Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
When performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is ventrally positioned. This finding is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Called hypospadias. Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral meatus is located on the ventral side of the penis. This condition is typically present from birth and is not a result of phimosis, which is the narrowing of the foreskin. It is also not likely due to a stricture, which is a narrowing of the urethra. Furthermore, hypospadias is a congenital condition and is not associated with aging, making option D incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following antibiotics requires close monitoring and dosing * adjustment in a patient with liver disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythromycin. Erythromycin is primarily metabolized in the liver, making it important to monitor and adjust dosage in patients with liver disease to prevent potential toxicity. Gentamycin and Penicillin G are primarily excreted by the kidneys, so liver function has less impact on their metabolism. Vancomycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys as well, so liver disease would not significantly affect its dosing requirements.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following cephalosporins has activity against gram negative * anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis, and the only cephalorins that cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Ceftriaxone belongs to the third-generation cephalosporins known for broad-spectrum activity against gram-negative * anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis. 2. It is the only cephalosporin among the choices that can effectively penetrate the blood-brain barrier, making it effective in treating central nervous system infections. 3. Cefoxitin (B) is a second-generation cephalosporin mainly active against gram-positive and some gram-negative bacteria. 4. Cephalin (C) is not a cephalosporin and does not exist. 5. Cexime (D) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin with extended spectrum, but it does not have the same ability to cross the blood-brain barrier as ceftriaxone.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following v agents is indicated in a 25 year old female is * diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Valacyclovir. 1. Valacyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex infections, including genital herpes. 2. It works by stopping the virus from multiplying in the body. 3. Amantadine (A) is used for influenza A virus, not herpes. 4. Lamivudine (C) is used for HIV and hepatitis B, not herpes. 5. Zanamivir (D) is used for influenza, not herpes.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely cause d this hematologic abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zidovudine. Zidovudine is known to cause hematologic abnormalities, specifically bone marrow suppression leading to anemia and neutropenia. This is due to its myelosuppressive effects. Acyclovir, Foscarnet, and Amantadine do not typically cause such hematologic abnormalities. Acyclovir and Foscarnet are antiviral medications primarily affecting viral replication, while Amantadine is an antiviral agent used for influenza A virus. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and known side effects, Zidovudine is the most likely drug to cause this hematologic abnormality.