When performing a genital assessment on a middle-aged man, the nurse notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower-like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristic of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genital warts. Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and present as soft, moist, painless papules in a cauliflower-like appearance. This is a classic presentation of genital warts, which are a common sexually transmitted infection. It is important to identify and differentiate genital warts from other genital lesions for appropriate treatment and management. Carcinoma (choice A) typically presents as a solitary, indurated, and ulcerated lesion. Syphilitic chancres (choice B) are usually firm, painless ulcers. Genital herpes (choice C) presents as painful vesicles or ulcers. These characteristics do not match the description provided in the question, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, making them effective against Chlamydia and Ureaplasma causing non-gonococcal urethritis. They should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. A: Daptomycin is not the correct choice as it works by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes. B: Carbapenems are broad-spectrum antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins, not ribosomes. C: Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes. In summary, tetracyclines are the drug of choice for the given condition due to their mechanism of action on ribosomes, while the other choices are incorrect as they target different

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cefotaxime. This third-generation cephalosporin is a preferred choice for treating bacterial meningitis due to its broad-spectrum coverage against common pathogens causing meningitis, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis. Cefuroxime (A) and Cephalexin (B) are not optimal choices as they have less activity against these pathogens. Cefdinir (D) is not a recommended treatment for bacterial meningitis and is not as effective as Cefotaxime in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for ringworm infections due to its effectiveness against dermatophytes. It works by inhibiting fungal cell division. Amphotericin B is used for systemic fungal infections, not ringworm. Nystatin is used for yeast infections, not ringworm. Neomycin is an antibiotic and is not effective against fungal infections like ringworm.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primaquine. Primaquine is an 8-aminoquinoline antimalarial drug primarily used for the radical cure of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale malaria, not for prophylaxis. Rationale: 1. Primaquine is not recommended for prophylactic use due to its potential for causing hemolytic anemia in individuals with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. 2. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine (Choice A) is a combination drug used for both treatment and prophylaxis of malaria. 3. Proguanil (Choice B) is used for prophylaxis of malaria in combination with other antimalarial drugs. 4. Mefloquine (Choice D) is used for both treatment and prophylaxis of malaria, especially in areas with chloroquine-resistant strains.