When ordering an oral diabetes medication for a 72-year-old patient with a recent history of decreased appetite and ongoing risk of hypoglycemia, the NP should prescribe:

Questions 53

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

physical assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

When ordering an oral diabetes medication for a 72-year-old patient with a recent history of decreased appetite and ongoing risk of hypoglycemia, the NP should prescribe:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the NP should prescribe Metformin (Glucophage) for the 72-year-old patient with decreased appetite and ongoing risk of hypoglycemia. Metformin is the correct choice for several reasons. Firstly, it is not associated with causing hypoglycemia on its own, making it safer for a patient at risk for low blood sugar. Secondly, Metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion and does not rely on the presence of adequate beta-cell function, which is beneficial for a patient experiencing decreased appetite. Additionally, Metformin is well-tolerated and has a lower risk of weight gain compared to other oral diabetes medications. Regarding why the other options are incorrect: A) Tolbutamide (Orinase) and D) Chlorpropamide (Diabinese) are both sulfonylureas that can cause hypoglycemia, which would not be ideal for a patient with a risk of low blood sugar. B) Glipizide (Glucotrol XL) is another sulfonylurea that poses a higher risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain, making it less suitable for this patient compared to Metformin. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of considering individual patient factors, such as age, appetite changes, and risk of hypoglycemia, when selecting appropriate pharmacological treatments for diabetes. Understanding the mechanisms of action and side effect profiles of different medications is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients with diabetes.

Question 2 of 5

Patients with psoriasis frequently have

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding common manifestations of skin conditions like psoriasis is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care. In this case, the correct answer is A) Pruritus, positive Auspitz sign, and pitted nails. Pruritus (itching) is a common symptom in psoriasis due to the inflammatory nature of the condition. The Auspitz sign, which is pinpoint bleeding when scales are removed, is a classic finding in psoriasis. Pitted nails, known as nail pitting, are also a common feature of psoriasis, caused by the abnormal growth of the nail plate. Option B) is incorrect because satellite lesions are not a typical feature of psoriasis. Option C) lacks pruritus and the Auspitz sign, which are key characteristics of psoriasis. Option D) is incorrect as a dermatomal rash is more indicative of conditions like shingles, not psoriasis. Educationally, knowing these specific signs and symptoms of psoriasis helps healthcare providers accurately diagnose and manage the condition. This knowledge is essential in pharmacology to select appropriate treatment options and educate patients about their condition.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Vitamin B12 deficiency?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency is crucial for healthcare professionals as it can greatly impact patient care. In this question, the correct answer is D) Vomiting, as vomiting is not a common symptom of Vitamin B12 deficiency. A) Sore tongue is a common symptom of Vitamin B12 deficiency due to the role of B12 in maintaining healthy nerve cells, including those on the tongue. B) Fatigue is also a common symptom as B12 is essential for energy production in the body. C) Constipation can occur with B12 deficiency as it affects the digestive system and slows down bowel movements. Educationally, knowing the symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency helps in early detection and management of the condition, preventing potential complications such as anemia and neurological issues. This question reinforces the importance of recognizing specific symptoms associated with nutrient deficiencies, guiding healthcare providers in appropriate interventions and treatment strategies.

Question 4 of 5

Which condition is caused by an insufficient production of intrinsic factor by gastric mucosa and vitamin B insufficiency?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Intrinsic factor is a crucial protein produced by the gastric mucosa that aids in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed effectively, leading to a deficiency. Pernicious anemia is a condition caused by the insufficient production of intrinsic factor, resulting in vitamin B12 deficiency and subsequent anemia. Option A, diarrhea, is not directly related to a deficiency in intrinsic factor or vitamin B12. Option C, osteoporosis, is a condition characterized by weakened bones due to loss of bone density, not related to intrinsic factor or vitamin B12 deficiency. Option D, muscle weakness, is not a typical manifestation of pernicious anemia or vitamin B12 deficiency. In an educational context, understanding the role of intrinsic factor in vitamin B12 absorption is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in pharmacology. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of pernicious anemia can prompt early diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications related to vitamin B12 deficiency. This knowledge is essential for healthcare providers to provide optimal care for patients with this condition.

Question 5 of 5

5-alpha reductase inhibitors work to improve symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), understanding the mechanism of action of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors is crucial. The correct answer, "A) Decreasing the size of the prostate," is based on the mechanism of action of these inhibitors. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), a potent androgen that contributes to the growth of the prostate gland. By reducing DHT levels, these inhibitors help to shrink the prostate gland over time, relieving the symptoms associated with BPH such as urinary hesitancy, frequency, and urgency. Option B, "Increasing blood flow to the prostate," is incorrect as the primary mechanism of action of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors is not related to blood flow but rather to hormonal regulation and prostate size reduction. Option C, "Relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder neck," is incorrect as this action is typically associated with alpha-blockers, another class of drugs used in the treatment of BPH. Alpha-blockers work by relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate, improving urine flow. Option D, "Relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate capsule," is also incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of alpha-blockers, not 5-alpha reductase inhibitors. Understanding the specific mechanisms of action of different drug classes in the treatment of BPH is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding patient care and medication management. This knowledge helps in selecting the most appropriate treatment options based on individual patient characteristics and symptoms, ultimately leading to better outcomes and patient satisfaction.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions