ATI RN
Endocrinology Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
When obtaining a client's vital signs, the nurse assesses a blood pressure of 134/88 mm Hg. What is the nurse's best intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range. The initial approach to managing prehypertension involves lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress reduction techniques. Calling the healthcare provider without attempting non-pharmacological interventions first is premature. Reassessing blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions. Administering additional antihypertensive medication is not indicated at this stage as lifestyle modifications are the first line of treatment for prehypertension.
Question 2 of 9
When the client finds antiembolism stockings uncomfortably tight, what is the nurse's best action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client finds antiembolism stockings uncomfortably tight is to teach the client the purpose of wearing the stockings. This educates the client on the importance of the stockings in preventing blood clots and encourages compliance. Removing the stockings or pulling them down may compromise their effectiveness. Measuring the client's calf size is not necessary in this situation as the discomfort is due to tightness, not incorrect sizing.
Question 3 of 9
When obtaining a client's vital signs, the nurse assesses a blood pressure of 134/88 mm Hg. What is the nurse's best intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range. The initial approach to managing prehypertension involves lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress reduction techniques. Calling the healthcare provider without attempting non-pharmacological interventions first is premature. Reassessing blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions. Administering additional antihypertensive medication is not indicated at this stage as lifestyle modifications are the first line of treatment for prehypertension.
Question 4 of 9
The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.
Question 5 of 9
A client is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). The nurse places the client on which precautions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Airborne.' Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which spreads through the air by respiratory droplets. Therefore, placing the client on airborne precautions is necessary to prevent the transmission of the virus. Choice B, 'Standard precautions,' involve basic infection prevention measures that are used for all client care. Choice C, 'Contact precautions,' are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, 'Droplet precautions,' are implemented for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets that are larger than 5 microns.
Question 6 of 9
A female client with deteriorating neurologic function states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children."? How does the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses worry about not being able to care for her children due to deteriorating neurologic function, the most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information from the client. This open-ended approach allows the nurse to better understand the client's specific concerns and needs, leading to tailored interventions and support. Choice A is dismissive and may make the client feel guilty for needing help. Choice B focuses on external resources without addressing the client's worries directly. Choice C suggests a psychological referral without exploring the client's concerns further. Therefore, the correct response is to gather more information to provide personalized support.
Question 7 of 9
While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.
Question 8 of 9
A client is receiving an IV infusion of an antibiotic. The client calls the nurse feeling uneasy due to congestion. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the client's symptoms of congestion and feeling uneasy may indicate an anaphylactic reaction, which can be life-threatening. The most appropriate action is to call the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate assistance and interventions. Elevating the head of the bed, administering diphenhydramine, or slowing the IV infusion rate are not the priority actions in the case of a potential severe allergic reaction. These interventions may delay necessary emergency care and potentially worsen the client's condition.
Question 9 of 9
How does the nurse interpret the client's actions of combing her hair only on the right side of her head and washing only the right side of her face after a stroke?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's selective grooming and washing habits indicate a condition known as 'unawareness of the existence of her left side,' also called hemispatial neglect. This condition is characterized by a lack of awareness or attention to one side of the body or space, typically the left side in stroke patients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the client's actions are not due to poor motor control, paralysis, contractures, or limited visual perception. Instead, they are indicative of a specific cognitive deficit related to neglecting one side of the body.