ATI RN
Endocrinology Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
When obtaining a client's vital signs, the nurse assesses a blood pressure of 134/88 mm Hg. What is the nurse's best intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range. The initial approach to managing prehypertension involves lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress reduction techniques. Calling the healthcare provider without attempting non-pharmacological interventions first is premature. Reassessing blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions. Administering additional antihypertensive medication is not indicated at this stage as lifestyle modifications are the first line of treatment for prehypertension.
Question 2 of 9
A client is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). The nurse places the client on which precautions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Airborne.' Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which spreads through the air by respiratory droplets. Therefore, placing the client on airborne precautions is necessary to prevent the transmission of the virus. Choice B, 'Standard precautions,' involve basic infection prevention measures that are used for all client care. Choice C, 'Contact precautions,' are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, 'Droplet precautions,' are implemented for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets that are larger than 5 microns.
Question 3 of 9
While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a client with epilepsy. Which precautions does the nurse implement to ensure the safety of the client while in the hospital? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a client with epilepsy, it is essential to avoid restraining them with strict bed rest as it can lead to complications like muscle atrophy, thrombosis, and pressure ulcers. Having suction equipment at the bedside is important in case of seizures to prevent aspiration. Keeping bed rails up can prevent falls during a seizure. Ensuring that the client has IV access is crucial for administering medications such as antiepileptic drugs or emergency medications if needed. Therefore, maintaining the client on strict bed rest is not a recommended precaution for a client with epilepsy.
Question 5 of 9
What intervention is most important to teach the client about identifying the onset of dehydration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtaining and charting daily weight. Monitoring daily weight is crucial in identifying the onset of dehydration as weight loss can be an early sign. Measuring abdominal girth (choice A) is not the most reliable method for detecting dehydration. Converting ounces to milliliters (choice B) and selecting food items with high water content (choice D) may be important for overall hydration but are not the most critical interventions for identifying the onset of dehydration.
Question 6 of 9
A female client with deteriorating neurologic function states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children."? How does the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses worry about not being able to care for her children due to deteriorating neurologic function, the most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information from the client. This open-ended approach allows the nurse to better understand the client's specific concerns and needs, leading to tailored interventions and support. Choice A is dismissive and may make the client feel guilty for needing help. Choice B focuses on external resources without addressing the client's worries directly. Choice C suggests a psychological referral without exploring the client's concerns further. Therefore, the correct response is to gather more information to provide personalized support.
Question 7 of 9
To obtain a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter, the nurse begins by applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port. What does the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After clamping the drainage tubing, the next step in obtaining a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter is to clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution. This cleaning step helps prevent contamination of the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube isn't necessary and may not be a standard practice. Inserting a syringe into the injection port to aspirate urine isn't the correct step at this point. Withdrawing 10 mL of urine and discarding it before collecting the sample isn't appropriate and may lead to an inaccurate sample.
Question 8 of 9
The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. The client's respiratory rate is 33 breaths/min and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of a potential transfusion reaction, indicated by an increased respiratory rate. The nurse's initial action should be to slow down the infusion rate of the packed red blood cells to prevent further complications. Administering diphenhydramine or stopping the infusion should not be the first actions taken, as the priority is to ensure the client's safety and prevent adverse reactions. Continuing to monitor vital signs without taking immediate action to address the increased respiratory rate would delay appropriate intervention.