ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
When nurses are projected in a television advertisement as sex symbols, what APPROPRIATE action is expected from a concerned nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for a concerned nurse when nurses are projected as sex symbols in a television advertisement is to make a position paper to denounce the advertisement. This approach allows the nurse to voice their concerns in a formal and professional manner. By creating a position paper, the nurse can clearly outline why the portrayal is inappropriate and advocate for more respectful representations of nursing in the media. This action is constructive, proactive, and focuses on initiating change through advocacy and education. It is a thoughtful and strategic way to address the issue and raise awareness about the importance of respecting the nursing profession.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with osteoarthritis of the hip undergoes surgical intervention with a total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following total hip arthroplasty (THA), patients are at an increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to factors such as immobility, surgery-related vascular damage, and hypercoagulability. DVT refers to the formation of blood clots in the deep veins, typically in the lower extremities. These clots can break loose and travel to the lungs, causing a potentially life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE). Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of DVT is crucial in the immediate postoperative period to promptly detect and prevent the development of complications such as PE. Common signs of DVT include leg swelling, pain, warmth, and redness. Additionally, healthcare providers may employ preventive measures such as early ambulation, compression stockings, and anticoagulant therapy to reduce the risk of DVT post-THA surgery.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with advanced heart failure expresses fear and anxiety about the progression of their illness. What is the palliative nurse's most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The palliative nurse's most appropriate response in this scenario is to offer empathetic listening and explore the patient's concerns about the future. By providing a compassionate and supportive environment for the patient to express their fears and anxieties, the nurse can help the patient feel heard and understood. This approach allows the nurse to address the patient's emotional needs and provide appropriate support to help them cope with their feelings. Avoiding discussions or minimizing the patient's concerns may invalidate their emotions and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Encouraging distraction techniques or focusing solely on positive thoughts may not address the underlying fears and anxieties that the patient is experiencing. Therefore, offering empathetic listening and exploring the patient's concerns is the most appropriate way for the nurse to provide holistic care for the patient with advanced heart failure.
Question 4 of 9
A professional nurse has a duty to know and respect the Patient's Bill of Rights. Which of the following is NOT included in the Patient's Bill of Rights? The right to/for ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: While continuity of care is an important aspect of patient care, it is not explicitly included in the Patient's Bill of Rights. The Patient's Bill of Rights typically focuses on fundamental rights such as respectful care, privacy, confidentiality, and receiving complete and current information about their illness. Continuity of care is often addressed in healthcare policies and practices, but it is not a specific right outlined in the Patient's Bill of Rights.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about PPI therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be instructed to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This is because PPIs work best when taken on an empty stomach, allowing them to inhibit the gastric proton pump effectively and reduce acid production in anticipation of food intake. Taking the medication before meals ensures optimal absorption and effectiveness in controlling symptoms of GERD.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a chronic viral infection demonstrates persistently elevated levels of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells in their blood. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for this observation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: T cell exhaustion is a state of T cell dysfunction that arises during chronic viral infections or cancer. In the case of a chronic viral infection, the persistent exposure to viral antigens leads to continuous stimulation of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. Over time, this sustained stimulation can lead to T cell exhaustion, characterized by the upregulation of inhibitory receptors, impaired effector functions, and reduced proliferative capacity. As a result, despite the elevated levels of CD8+ T cells in the blood, their function may be compromised, ultimately impacting the immune response against the viral infection. In contrast, activation-induced cell death (AICD) may contribute to T cell loss during chronic infections but would not explain the persistently elevated CD8+ T cell levels. Thymic involution refers to the age-related decline in thymus function, which is not directly related to the observed increase in CD8+ T cells. Antigenic
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. The patient reports a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus in a patient with a recent upper respiratory tract infection is highly suggestive of vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is typically caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection such as an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition presents with acute, severe, continuous vertigo without associated hearing loss. The presence of nystagmus, along with the absence of hearing loss, helps differentiate vestibular neuritis from Meniere's disease (which typically presents with episodic vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus) and acoustic neuroma (which presents with gradual onset of symptoms including unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and imbalance). Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) typically presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head movements, rather than the continuous vertigo seen in this case.
Question 8 of 9
Who should be involved in quality improvement measures?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Quality improvement measures are most effective when everyone within an organization is involved. This includes not only professional and management staff but also consumers or customers who are directly impacted by the products or services being provided. By involving everyone, a more comprehensive and diverse perspective can be gained, leading to better identification of areas for improvement and more successful implementation of quality improvement initiatives. Additionally, by involving all stakeholders, there is a greater buy-in and commitment to the process, increasing the likelihood of sustainable improvements being made.
Question 9 of 9
When providing health education to a patient, what is an essential aspect of effective communication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When providing health education to a patient, using clear and simple language is an essential aspect of effective communication. Medical terminology can be confusing and overwhelming for individuals without a medical background. By using language that the patient can easily understand, you improve their comprehension of the information being conveyed. Speaking quickly or using complex terms can actually hinder communication and may lead to misunderstanding. Clear and simple language helps ensure that the patient fully grasps the information and can make informed decisions about their health.