ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). This is crucial in monitoring a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction as it provides information on left ventricular function and fluid status. A high PAWP may indicate left ventricular failure or fluid overload, requiring immediate intervention. A: Central venous pressure (CVP) is not as specific for assessing left ventricular function and may not provide accurate information in this scenario. B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is important in assessing systemic blood flow, but it may not directly indicate left ventricular function in this case. C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is more relevant in conditions affecting the pulmonary circulation and may not be as immediately informative in assessing left ventricular function in this context.
Question 2 of 9
What must the patient must be able of in order to provide informed consent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because informed consent requires the patient to have knowledge and competence to make a decision. This involves understanding the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the proposed treatment. Choice A is incorrect as it pertains to a physical ability unrelated to decision-making. Choice C is incorrect as consent must be verbal or written, not just nodding. Choice D is incorrect as consent can be obtained in various ways, not specifically through reading and writing in English.
Question 3 of 9
Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodialysis combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques. Ultrafiltration removes excess fluid, convection helps in removing solutes, and dialysis involves the diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This comprehensive approach ensures effective removal of both fluid and solutes in critically ill patients. Incorrect Answer Analysis: A: Removing fluids and solutes through convection alone is not the complete process in continuous venovenous hemodialysis. B: While volume overload is addressed, continuous venovenous hemodialysis involves more than just removing plasma water. C: Adding dialysate is not the primary method in continuous venovenous hemodialysis; it involves ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques.
Question 4 of 9
While caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery cathete r, the nurse notes the pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) to be significantly higher than previously recorded values. The nurse assesses respirations to be unlabored at 16 breat hs/min, oxygen saturation of 98% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula, and lungs clear to auscultation bilaterally. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the physician immediately of the assessment findings. The significantly higher PAOP could indicate a potential complication or a change in the patient's condition that needs immediate medical attention. By notifying the physician, further assessment and interventions can be initiated promptly to address the underlying cause. Increasing supplemental oxygen (choice A) may not directly address the elevated PAOP, obtaining a chest x-ray (choice C) may delay urgent intervention, and zero referencing the catheter (choice D) is not a priority in this situation. Notifying the physician ensures timely and appropriate management of the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 9
A middle-aged patient tells the nurse, 'My mother died 4 months ago, and I just can’t seem to get over it. I’m not sure it is normal to still think about her every day.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about normal grieving. This is because the patient is expressing uncertainty and seeking validation for their feelings, indicating a lack of understanding about the grieving process. Choice A is incorrect as hopelessness typically involves feelings of despair and loss of motivation, which are not explicitly stated by the patient. Choice B is incorrect as complicated grieving involves specific unresolved issues related to the loss, which the patient did not mention. Choice D is incorrect as chronic sorrow is typically associated with ongoing feelings of sadness and longing, which are not explicitly expressed by the patient.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse decides to seek certification in critical care nursing. What is the most important benefit for the individual nurse in becoming certified in a specialty?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because obtaining certification in critical care nursing demonstrates the nurse's personal expertise in the specialty. Certification confirms the nurse's advanced knowledge and skills, enhancing professional credibility and potential for career advancement. This choice focuses on the individual nurse's competency and dedication to the specialty. Incorrect choices: A: Salary increase is not the primary benefit of certification, although it may be a potential outcome. B: Certification is often preferred but not always required to work in critical care. D: Employers may encourage certification, but it is not always mandated.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse calculates the PaO /FiO ratio for the following values: PaO is 78 mm Hg; FiO is 2 2 2 2 6 (60%). What is the outcome and the relationship to the ARDS diagnosing criteria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.
Question 8 of 9
What factors associated with the critical care unit can pred ispose the client to increased pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of an endotracheal tube can predispose the client to increased pain and anxiety due to discomfort, difficulty breathing, and potential for aspiration. The tube insertion process itself can be painful and traumatic. Frequent vital sign assessment, monitor alarms, and room temperature are not directly associated with increased pain and anxiety from the endotracheal tube.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has just been admitted to the ICU after being in a severe auto accident and losing one of her legs. Her husband has his hand over his heart and complains of a rapid heart rate. The nurse recognizes his condition as a sign of which stage of the general adaptation syndrome to stress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alarm stage. The husband's rapid heart rate indicates the initial alarm reaction to stress, characterized by physiological arousal. This stage involves the body's fight-or-flight response to a stressor. In this scenario, the husband is experiencing the physiological effects of the stressful situation, such as the auto accident and loss of a limb. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Exhaustion stage occurs if stress continues without relief, leading to depletion of resources and increased vulnerability to illness. C: Resistance stage is the body's attempt to adapt and cope with the stressor after the initial alarm reaction. D: Adaptation stage is not a recognized stage in the general adaptation syndrome model.