ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). This is crucial in monitoring a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction as it provides information on left ventricular function and fluid status. A high PAWP may indicate left ventricular failure or fluid overload, requiring immediate intervention. A: Central venous pressure (CVP) is not as specific for assessing left ventricular function and may not provide accurate information in this scenario. B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is important in assessing systemic blood flow, but it may not directly indicate left ventricular function in this case. C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is more relevant in conditions affecting the pulmonary circulation and may not be as immediately informative in assessing left ventricular function in this context.
Question 2 of 9
The patient’s spouse is very upset because the patient, who is near death, has dyspnea and restlessness. The nurse explains what options to decrease the discomfort?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Opioid medications given as needed. Opioids are indicated for managing dyspnea and restlessness in palliative care by providing relief from symptoms. They act as potent analgesics and can help decrease the distress associated with difficult breathing and restlessness. Respiratory therapy treatments (A) and incentive spirometry treatments (C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by dyspnea and restlessness. Increased hydration (D) may not directly alleviate the symptoms and could potentially worsen the patient's discomfort.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse decides to seek certification in critical care nursing. What is the most important benefit for the individual nurse in becoming certified in a specialty?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because obtaining certification in critical care nursing demonstrates the nurse's personal expertise in the specialty. Certification confirms the nurse's advanced knowledge and skills, enhancing professional credibility and potential for career advancement. This choice focuses on the individual nurse's competency and dedication to the specialty. Incorrect choices: A: Salary increase is not the primary benefit of certification, although it may be a potential outcome. B: Certification is often preferred but not always required to work in critical care. D: Employers may encourage certification, but it is not always mandated.
Question 4 of 9
The spouse of a patient with terminal cancer visits daily and cheerfully talks with the patient about wedding anniversary plans for the next year. When the nurse asks about any concerns, the spouse says, 'I’m busy at work, but otherwise, things are fine.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving. The spouse's behavior of avoiding the reality of the terminal illness and focusing on future plans indicates maladaptive coping. The cheerfulness and denial suggest a lack of acceptance and processing of the impending loss. This can lead to emotional distress and hinder the grieving process. Choice B (Anxiety related to the complicated grieving process) is incorrect because the spouse's behavior does not exhibit signs of anxiety but rather avoidance and denial. Choice C (Caregiver role strain related to feeling overwhelmed) is incorrect as the spouse does not express feeling overwhelmed but instead deflects by focusing on work. Choice D (Hopelessness related to knowledge deficit about cancer) is incorrect because the spouse's behavior does not indicate hopelessness or lack of understanding about cancer, but rather an avoidance of facing the reality of the situation.
Question 5 of 9
A patient requires neuromuscular blockade (NMB) as part of treatment of refractive increased intracranial pressure. The nursing care for this patient includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initiated. When a patient requires neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure, they are likely immobile, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Initiating DVT prophylaxis, such as compression stockings or anticoagulant therapy, helps prevent blood clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because sedatives can mask signs of neurologic deterioration in this patient population. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes activities that may increase intracranial pressure and could be harmful. Choice D, while important for overall patient care, is not directly related to the specific nursing interventions required for a patient receiving neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse calculates the PaO /FiO ratio for the following values: PaO is 78 mm Hg; FiO is 2 2 2 2 6 (60%). What is the outcome and the relationship to the ARDS diagnosing criteria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.
Question 7 of 9
The following interventions are part of the emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the patient's rings first. This is crucial to prevent constriction and swelling due to potential allergic reactions or inflammation from bee stings. Removing rings allows for proper circulation and prevents complications like compartment syndrome. Ice packs (B) can be applied after removing the rings to reduce swelling. Calamine lotion (C) can provide relief for itching but is not as urgent as ring removal. Diphenhydramine (D) can be given later for systemic allergic reactions but should not take precedence over removing the rings.
Question 8 of 9
A physician visits a patient in the ICU while the nurse is out. The patient complains that the pain medication is not effective and that he would like to receive an increased dose. The physician has the nurse paged and consults with him in the hallway regarding the patients request for stronger pain medication. The nurse explains that patient was started on a morphine drip only 20 minutes ago and that the drug has not had time to take effectyet. The physician agrees and tells the patient to give it just a bit more time. Which component of a healthy work environment is most evident in this scenario?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: True collaboration. In this scenario, the physician consults with the nurse to understand the situation and collaborates on the best course of action for the patient's care. This demonstrates effective teamwork, communication, and mutual respect between healthcare professionals, which are key components of a healthy work environment. Choice A (Skilled communication) is not the best answer because while communication between the physician and nurse is important, the focus in this scenario is more on collaboration and teamwork. Choice B (Appropriate staffing) is not the best answer as the scenario does not specifically address staffing levels but rather the interaction and collaboration between the physician and nurse. Choice D (Recognizing signs of imminent stroke and paging the physician) is incorrect as it is unrelated to the scenario described, which is about the physician and nurse collaborating on patient care.
Question 9 of 9
What is the primary mode of action of a neuromuscular bl ocking agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This paralysis helps facilitate intubation, surgical procedures, and mechanical ventilation. A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief; they primarily induce muscle paralysis without affecting pain sensation. B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures; their mechanism of action is not related to controlling convulsions. D: Sedation - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not induce sedation; they specifically target the neuromuscular junction to cause muscle paralysis.