ATI RN
Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digitalis (e.g., Digoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide can cause a severe interaction because hydrochlorothiazide can reduce potassium levels in the body. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can increase the risk of digitalis toxicity, leading to dangerous effects on the heart. Therefore, patients taking hydrochlorothiazide along with digitalis need close monitoring of their potassium levels and potential adjustments to their digitalis therapy. It is important to communicate this risk to the healthcare team to ensure patient safety.
Question 2 of 9
What drug classification is Valproate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Valproate is a medication classified as an anticonvulsant, which means it is primarily used to treat seizures and epilepsy. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and helping to prevent abnormal brain signals that can lead to seizures. Valproate is also used as a mood stabilizer to treat bipolar disorder and is sometimes prescribed for migraine prevention. It is not classified as an antiarrhythmic, anticoagulant, or any other type of drug.
Question 3 of 9
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse teach the client to report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, causes dry cough via bradykinin buildup, a common effect needing reporting to consider switching (e.g., to an ARB). Fatigue , headache , and nausea are less specific or urgent. Cough aligns with enalapril's pharmacology, critical in hypertension where adherence hinges on tolerability, making A the key side effect to report.
Question 4 of 9
A 15-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of runny nose and itchy eyes. She said that she first had these symptoms during the spring a few years ago, but each year, they have been bothering her more. You know there are multiple ways to interfere with the signaling that is causing her symptoms. Which of the following drugs would prevent the release of the main chemical mediator in her case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms-runny nose and itchy eyes during spring-suggest seasonal allergic rhinitis, where histamine is the main chemical mediator released from mast cells. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells, preventing histamine release, making it a prophylactic agent ideal for this scenario. Diphenhydramine is an H1 antihistamine that blocks histamine receptors after release, not preventing its release, so it's incorrect. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker, affecting gastric acid secretion, not allergic histamine pathways. Loratadine is another H1 antihistamine, also acting post-release. Theophylline (E) is a bronchodilator, irrelevant here. The question emphasizes preventing release, not blocking effects, so Cromolyn sodium stands out. Its mechanism directly addresses the root cause by stabilizing mast cells before allergen exposure triggers histamine release, offering a preventative rather than symptomatic approach, which aligns with the patient's recurring seasonal issue.
Question 5 of 9
When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digitalis (e.g., Digoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide can cause a severe interaction because hydrochlorothiazide can reduce potassium levels in the body. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can increase the risk of digitalis toxicity, leading to dangerous effects on the heart. Therefore, patients taking hydrochlorothiazide along with digitalis need close monitoring of their potassium levels and potential adjustments to their digitalis therapy. It is important to communicate this risk to the healthcare team to ensure patient safety.
Question 6 of 9
A 38-year-old man who is obese complains of an extremely painful, swollen metatarsophalangeal joint of his left big toe. He presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. He has had two similar attacks in the past 4 years. The physician prescribes probenecid. Which of the following describes probenecid's mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gout (recurrent toe pain) is treated with probenecid , which inhibits urate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, increasing uric acid excretion. Anti-inflammatory and leukocyte migration inhibition are colchicine's effects. Xanthine oxidase inhibition is allopurinol's. Upregulation (E) is wrong. Probenecid's uricosuric action reduces urate levels, preventing attacks.
Question 7 of 9
When monitoring a patient who has diabetes and is receiving a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor for edema, the nurse will monitor for which possible adverse effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are a class of medications used to treat edema by decreasing the production of aqueous humor in the eye and reducing fluid in the body. One common side effect of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors is metabolic acidosis, which can lead to increased blood glucose levels in patients with diabetes. The medication may interfere with the body's ability to regulate blood glucose levels, leading to elevated blood glucose. Therefore, when monitoring a patient with diabetes who is receiving a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, the nurse should closely monitor for signs of elevated blood glucose levels to prevent potential complications.
Question 8 of 9
The following are metabolized by enzymes in the hepatic smooth endoplasmic reticulum:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metoprolol is metabolized primarily by hepatic enzymes in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum via CYP450 pathways.
Question 9 of 9
A patient asks the nurse for information about fat-soluble vitamins. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are stored in the liver and adipose tissue and excreted slowly, making them more likely to accumulate and cause toxicity if taken in excess. They are not metabolized rapidly (A) and can be stored in the liver (B). They can be toxic (D) if consumed in large amounts.