ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Online Practice 2023 B Questions
Question 1 of 5
When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digitalis (e.g., Digoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide can cause a severe interaction because hydrochlorothiazide can reduce potassium levels in the body. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can increase the risk of digitalis toxicity, leading to dangerous effects on the heart. Therefore, patients taking hydrochlorothiazide along with digitalis need close monitoring of their potassium levels and potential adjustments to their digitalis therapy. It is important to communicate this risk to the healthcare team to ensure patient safety.
Question 2 of 5
An individual who has difficulty sleeping due to two final examinations scheduled for the same day later in the week most likely would be suffering from
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sleep trouble from exams is situational anxiety-transient, event-driven stress, per psychiatry. Social anxiety involves interaction fears, not events. OCD features obsessions/rituals, not sleep-specific. Performance anxiety ties to tasks, less sleep focus. Situational fits, triggered by circumstance.
Question 3 of 5
Tricyclic antidepressants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) like imipramine block norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake, but their anticholinergic effects are significant. In glaucoma, particularly angle-closure type, these effects can increase intraocular pressure by dilating pupils and obstructing aqueous humor outflow, risking acute attacks—thus, they're contraindicated. TCAs lower seizure threshold, lacking anticonvulsant activity, and may exacerbate epilepsy. They don't enhance levodopa absorption; rather, they might interact via monoamine pathways, but this isn't a primary effect. Some TCAs (e.g., amitriptyline) have quinidine-like sodium channel blockade, giving antiarrhythmic properties, but this isn't their primary use. The glaucoma concern is critical due to the anticholinergic mechanism, making it a key clinical consideration and the most accurate statement here.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client and notes that he is receiving finasteride (Proscar). The client denies having any history of a significant prostate disorder. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is used as Proscar for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and as Propecia for male pattern baldness, reducing dihydrotestosterone to promote hair growth. Without prostate issues, baldness is a likely reason for its use. Erectile dysfunction isn't treated by finasteride-it may cause it-making that irrelevant. Stomach ulcers and hypertension aren't linked to finasteride's androgen-targeted action. Asking about baldness probes a condition tied to its alternative use, clarifying the prescription's purpose and guiding the nurse's understanding of the client's therapy.
Question 5 of 5
The most potent of ester type of Local Anesthesia:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Articaine is considered the most potent ester type of local anesthetic. It is known for its high efficacy in providing profound anesthesia due to its unique chemical structure that enhances its ability to penetrate tissues effectively. Articaine also has a rapid onset of action and a relatively long duration of action compared to other ester local anesthetics. These characteristics make it a popular choice for various dental and medical procedures where deep and long-lasting anesthesia is required.