ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology PPT Questions
Question 1 of 5
When monitoring a patient who has diabetes and is receiving a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor for edema, the nurse will monitor for which possible adverse effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated blood glucose. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can lead to hyperglycemia in diabetic patients by reducing the excretion of glucose in the urine. Monitoring blood glucose levels is essential to prevent complications. Metabolic alkalosis (A) is not typically associated with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. Hyperkalemia (C) is not a common adverse effect of these medications. Mental alertness (D) is not directly affected by carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. Monitoring blood glucose in diabetic patients is crucial due to the potential impact on glycemic control.
Question 2 of 5
An agonist is a substance that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an agonist interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function. Agonists bind to the receptor and activate it, leading to a cellular response. Choice A is incorrect because agonists do produce an effect. Choice C is too general and does not specifically define the role of an agonist. Choice D describes the mechanism of a potentiator, not an agonist. In summary, an agonist directly interacts with the receptor to elicit a cellular response, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
Indicate the anesthetic agent of choice in patient with a liver disease:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procaine. Patients with liver disease have impaired metabolism and clearance of certain drugs. Procaine is the anesthetic agent of choice in patients with liver disease because it is metabolized in plasma rather than the liver, reducing the risk of toxicity. Lidocaine (A) and Bupivacaine (B) are primarily metabolized by the liver and can accumulate in patients with liver disease, leading to toxicity. Etidocaine (D) is also metabolized by the liver and should be avoided in patients with liver dysfunction. Therefore, Procaine is the safest choice in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
Isofluorophate increases all of the following effects except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchodilation. Isofluorophate is an organophosphate compound that acts as a cholinesterase inhibitor, leading to increased acetylcholine levels. Lacrimation, muscle twitching, and salivation are all effects of increased acetylcholine activity due to cholinesterase inhibition. However, bronchodilation is not typically associated with increased acetylcholine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are known effects of increased acetylcholine activity.
Question 5 of 5
Ganglion blocking drugs are used for the following emergencies EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiovascular collapse. Ganglion blocking drugs are not used for cardiovascular collapse because they can worsen the condition by further reducing blood pressure. These drugs are indicated for hypertensive crises, controlled hypotension, and pulmonary edema due to their ability to block ganglionic transmission and lower blood pressure. In cardiovascular collapse, the priority is to increase blood pressure and perfusion, which is not achieved by using ganglion blocking drugs. Therefore, using these drugs in cardiovascular collapse can be detrimental. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ganglion blocking drugs can be beneficial in managing hypertensive crises, controlled hypotension, and pulmonary edema, respectively.