ATI RN
Nurse in Psychiatry Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
When making a distinction as to whether an elderly patient has confusion related to delirium or another problem, what information would be of particular value?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medications the patient has recently taken. This is crucial because certain medications can cause delirium in elderly patients. Step 1: Evaluate recent medication history. Step 2: Identify medications known to cause delirium. Step 3: Determine if the patient has taken any of these medications. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Evidence of spasticity or flaccidity is more related to neuromuscular conditions. C: Level of preoccupation with somatic symptoms is not specific to delirium assessment. D: The patient’s level of motor activity is not a key factor in distinguishing delirium from other problems.
Question 2 of 5
What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a catatonic patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a catatonic patient is Risk for deficient fluid volume (C) because catatonic patients are at risk for dehydration due to decreased fluid intake or inability to meet fluid needs. This diagnosis takes precedence over others as dehydration can lead to serious complications. Ineffective coping (A) may be secondary to the catatonic state but addressing fluid volume is more urgent. Impaired physical mobility (B) and Impaired social interaction (D) are important but not as critical as addressing the risk of dehydration in a catatonic patient.
Question 3 of 5
Which statement by a patient who has given informed consent for ECT confirms that the patient understands the side effects of this treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately reflects the known side effect of ECT, which is temporary short-term memory loss. This statement indicates the patient comprehends the potential cognitive impact of the treatment. A is incorrect because it does not address specific side effects of ECT. B is incorrect as it implies a misconception that only one session is needed. D is incorrect as ECT does not guarantee that depression will never return.
Question 4 of 5
Which physical disturbance is commonly assessed in patients experiencing acute grief?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tightness in the chest. This physical disturbance is commonly associated with acute grief due to the emotional pain experienced. It is a manifestation of the intense feelings of sadness and loss that accompany grief. Tightness in the chest can be a result of the stress response triggered by grief, leading to physical symptoms such as chest pain and difficulty breathing. Summary: B: Hypersomnia and C: Increased appetite are more commonly associated with conditions like depression, while D: Cardiovascular problems may be a long-term consequence of chronic stress but are not typically assessed as a primary physical disturbance in acute grief.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is working with a group of older adults attending a seminar on the physical and emotional effects of aging. Which patient statements are good predictors of positive well-being and perceived mortality? (Select all that apply.) “Not having to deal with the stress of any major chronic illnesses.”
Correct Answer: A, C
Rationale: The correct answers are A and C. Statement A indicates a positive attitude towards aging, which is a good predictor of positive well-being. Feeling satisfied with growing older can lead to better emotional health and higher perceived mortality. Statement C suggests that retirement provides opportunities for personal fulfillment, which can contribute to positive well-being. Statements B and D do not directly address attitudes towards aging or well-being, making them less reliable predictors.
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