Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

When making a distinction as to whether an elderly patient has confusion related to delirium or another problem, what information would be of particular value?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Medications the patient has recently taken. This information is crucial because certain medications can cause symptoms of delirium or exacerbate confusion in elderly patients. By reviewing the patient's recent medications, healthcare providers can identify potential drug-induced causes of confusion and adjust the treatment accordingly. Choice A (Evidence of spasticity or flaccidity) is incorrect because these symptoms are more related to neurological conditions such as stroke or spinal cord injury, not specifically delirium. Choice B (The patient’s level of motor activity) is not as relevant in distinguishing delirium from other problems as medication history, as motor activity can be influenced by various factors. Choice D (Level of preoccupation with somatic symptoms) is also less relevant compared to medication history in differentiating delirium, as somatic symptoms may not always directly indicate the underlying cause of confusion in elderly patients.

Question 2 of 5

A physically frail elderly patient with mild cognitive impairments needs services of a facility that can provide supervision and safety as well as recreation and social interaction. The family cares for this patient during the evening and night. Which type of facility should the nurse suggest to meet this patient’s needs?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adult day care program. This option best meets the needs of the patient as it provides supervision, safety, recreation, and social interaction during the day while allowing the family to care for the patient during the evening and night. Adult day care programs offer a structured environment with trained staff to ensure the patient's safety and provide activities to stimulate cognitive function. Explanation of other choices: A: Skilled nursing facility - Not ideal as the patient does not require 24-hour nursing care. C: Partial hospitalization - Typically for individuals needing intensive mental health services, not suitable for this patient's needs. D: Group home - Usually for individuals who need more permanent residential care, not appropriate for the patient's situation.

Question 3 of 5

When a patient asks the nurse, “How can jolting me with an electrical shock possibly do me any good?” the answer most reflective of current biologic theory would be:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment for severe depression and other mental health disorders. Step 2: Current biological theory suggests that ECT produces changes in brain chemistry, specifically neurotransmitters, leading to improved mood. Step 3: The correct answer (A) aligns with this theory by explaining how ECT impacts brain chemistry to alleviate symptoms. Step 4: Answer B is incorrect as ECT is not used as punishment but as a therapeutic intervention. Step 5: Answer C is incorrect as ECT is not primarily used to interrupt brain impulses causing hallucinations and delusions. Step 6: Answer D is incorrect as ECT does not shock the brain into re-establishing normal electrical patterns but rather affects neurotransmitter levels.

Question 4 of 5

A chronically depressed and suicidal client is admitted to a psychiatric unit. The client is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). During the course of ECT, a nurse should recognize the continued need for which critical intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because suicide assessment must continue throughout the ECT course to ensure the safety and well-being of the client. During ECT, the client may experience changes in mood and behavior, which could impact their risk of suicide. It is essential for the nurse to monitor and assess the client's suicidal ideation and intent regularly. This ongoing assessment helps in identifying any exacerbation of suicidal thoughts and allows for timely intervention to prevent self-harm. Choice B is incorrect because antidepressant medications are not necessarily contraindicated throughout the ECT course. In some cases, a client may still require antidepressants in addition to ECT for optimal treatment outcomes. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of hopelessness rather than discouraging them. By addressing and exploring these feelings, the nurse can provide support and facilitate the client's emotional processing. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging a high-caloric diet is not directly related to the critical intervention needed during

Question 5 of 5

Which person has the greatest potential for developing dysfunctional grief?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sudden, traumatic deaths can lead to complicated grief reactions. This type of loss can disrupt the individual's ability to process and accept the death, resulting in prolonged and intense emotional distress. The other choices, A, B, and D, do not inherently indicate a higher potential for dysfunctional grief as they do not involve the same level of suddenness or trauma. Teen popularity, expressing love for a deceased spouse, and experiencing multiple losses over time are common situations that may not necessarily lead to dysfunctional grief if appropriate support and coping mechanisms are in place.

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