When is the earliest interval that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 weeks. CVS is typically performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation. At this time, there is enough fetal tissue for sampling without significant risk to the pregnancy. Performing CVS earlier (options A, B) may result in insufficient tissue for accurate testing, while performing it later (option D) may increase the risk of procedure-related complications. Option C provides the optimal balance between ensuring accurate results and minimizing potential risks to the pregnancy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Determine fetal lung maturity. At 34 weeks of gestation, assessing fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the baby's lungs are developed enough for safe delivery. Amniocentesis can provide amniotic fluid for testing lung maturity. Choice A is incorrect as metabolic disorders are not typically assessed through amniocentesis. Choice B is incorrect as determining fetal sex is not the primary purpose of amniocentesis at this gestational age. Choice C is incorrect as identifying abnormal fetal cells is not the main goal of amniocentesis in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reactive. In a nonstress test, a reactive result is considered normal and indicates a healthy fetus. This is because it shows two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 or more BPM with fetal movement in a 20-minute period, which signifies a responsive and healthy fetal heart rate pattern. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Positive typically indicates a concerning result in medical contexts. B: Negative signifies an abnormal result in this context. D: Nonreactive suggests a lack of desired fetal heart rate accelerations with movement, which is not ideal.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A score of 8 would indicate normal results. In a biophysical profile, each component is scored as either 0 or 2, totaling a maximum of 10. In this case, the patient has: 0 for NST, 2 for FBMs, 1 for gross movements, 2 for fetal tone, and 2 for AFI, totaling 7. However, if there are at least 2 episodes of FBMs, this component is given a score of 2. Therefore, the correct total score is 8. This score indicates normal results, as it meets the criteria for a reassuring biophysical profile. Incorrect Choices: A: A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal - This is incorrect as a score of 10 would indicate normal results, not equivocal. C: A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment option - This is incorrect, as a score

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive contraction stress test (CST) indicates potential fetal distress, requiring immediate medical attention. Contacting the health care provider is necessary to discuss birth options for the patient, such as potential induction or cesarean section to prevent harm to the fetus. A is incorrect because waiting another week could pose risks to the fetus if distress is already present. C is incorrect as sending the patient out for a meal and repeating the test is not a valid or necessary intervention. D is incorrect as a fetal kick count assessment does not address the immediate concerns raised by a positive CST result.