ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
When fluid is present in the alveoli what is the result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alveoli collapse and atelectasis occurs. When fluid is present in the alveoli, it impairs the surface tension necessary for the alveoli to remain open, leading to collapse and atelectasis. This prevents proper gas exchange, resulting in hypoxemia. Choice B is incorrect because impaired gas diffusion typically occurs with conditions affecting the alveolar-capillary membrane, not fluid in the alveoli. Choice C is incorrect as hypoventilation refers to decreased ventilation, not specifically related to fluid in the alveoli. Choice D is incorrect as fluid in the alveoli is not a direct indicator of heart failure.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
Question 3 of 5
A 45-year-old postsurgical patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit has been tolerating the ventilator well and has not required any sedation. The apbairtbi.ecnomt /bteesct omes tachycardic and hypertensive with a respiratory rate that has increased to 28 breaths/min. The ventilator is set on synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV ) at a rate of 10 breaths/min. The patient has been suctioned recently via existing endotracheal tube until airway is clear. When the patient responds appropriately to the nurse’s command s, what should be the nurse’s priority intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing the patient's level of pain. In this situation, the patient's tachycardia, hypertension, and increased respiratory rate could be indicative of pain. By assessing the patient's pain level, the nurse can address any discomfort the patient may be experiencing, which could be contributing to these physiological responses. Summary of other choices: B: Decreasing the SIMV rate on the ventilator - This is not the priority intervention as the patient's symptoms are more likely related to pain rather than the ventilator settings. C: Providing sedation as ordered - Sedation is not the priority in this case as the patient has been tolerating the ventilator well without requiring sedation. D: Suctioning the patient again - Since the airway has been recently cleared, suctioning again is not necessary at this point and would not address the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
After a change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours. This patient should be assessed first because the absence of urine output for 6 hours after being extubated could indicate acute kidney injury or other serious complications that need immediate attention. Urine output is a crucial indicator of renal function and can reflect the patient's overall hemodynamic status. In contrast, the other choices do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Choice A involves a patient in rest mode post-failed breathing trial, which does not require immediate assessment. Choice B mentions continuous PETCO2 monitoring, which is important but not as urgent as assessing a patient with no urine output. Choice C describes a patient with a ScvO2 of 69%, which may need monitoring but does not indicate an urgent priority compared to assessing a patient with no urine output after recent extubation.
Question 5 of 5
The emergency department (ED) nurse is initiating therapeutic hypothermia in a patient who has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. Which actions in the hypothermia protocol can be delegated to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube. Rationale: LPNs/LVNs are trained to administer medications, including oral and nasogastric routes. Giving acetaminophen via nasogastric tube is within their scope of practice. LPNs/LVNs should have the knowledge and skills to safely administer this medication as part of the hypothermia protocol. Summary of other choices: A: Continuously monitor heart rhythm - This requires specialized training and skills typically within the scope of registered nurses or cardiac monitoring technicians. B: Check neurologic status every 2 hours - Assessing neurologic status requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses. C: Place cooling blankets above and below the patient - Positioning and managing cooling devices may require specific training and should be done under the supervision of a registered nurse.
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