ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
When fluid is present in the alveoli what is the result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alveoli collapse and atelectasis occurs. When fluid is present in the alveoli, it impairs the surface tension necessary for the alveoli to remain open, leading to collapse and atelectasis. This prevents proper gas exchange, resulting in hypoxemia. Choice B is incorrect because impaired gas diffusion typically occurs with conditions affecting the alveolar-capillary membrane, not fluid in the alveoli. Choice C is incorrect as hypoventilation refers to decreased ventilation, not specifically related to fluid in the alveoli. Choice D is incorrect as fluid in the alveoli is not a direct indicator of heart failure.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is educating a patient’s family member about a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC). Which statement by the family member best indicates undaebrisrbt.acnomd/itnesgt of the purpose of the PAC?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it shows understanding that the PAC helps in managing fluid therapy effectively. The PAC measures pressures in the heart and lungs, guiding fluid management. Choice A is incorrect as the PAC is not primarily for IV fluid administration. Choice C shows understanding of the catheter placement but not its purpose. Choice D is incorrect as the PAC is not for the heart to heal but to monitor cardiac status.
Question 3 of 9
An intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min. In cardiogenic shock, the primary goal of using an IABP is to improve cardiac output to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. A cardiac output of 5 L/min indicates adequate blood flow and perfusion. Choice A is incorrect as urine output is not a direct indicator of cardiac function. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 110 beats/minute alone does not provide information on the effectiveness of the IABP in improving cardiac output. Choice D is incorrect as stroke volume alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall cardiac function.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse calculates the PaO /FiO ratio for the following values: PaO is 78 mm Hg; FiO is 2 2 2 2 6 (60%). What is the outcome and the relationship to the ARDS diagnosing criteria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.
Question 5 of 9
A patient requires neuromuscular blockade (NMB) as part of treatment of refractive increased intracranial pressure. The nursing care for this patient includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initiated. When a patient requires neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure, they are likely immobile, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Initiating DVT prophylaxis, such as compression stockings or anticoagulant therapy, helps prevent blood clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because sedatives can mask signs of neurologic deterioration in this patient population. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes activities that may increase intracranial pressure and could be harmful. Choice D, while important for overall patient care, is not directly related to the specific nursing interventions required for a patient receiving neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure.
Question 6 of 9
A 16-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital after falling off a bike and sustaining a fractured bone. The healthcare provider explains the surgery needed to immobilize the fracture. Which action should be implemented to obtain a valid informed consent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain the permission of the custodial parent for the surgery. In this scenario, the client is a minor (16 years old), which means they are not legally able to provide informed consent for medical procedures. The custodial parent holds legal responsibility for the minor's healthcare decisions. Thus, obtaining the permission of the custodial parent is crucial to ensure valid informed consent. Choice B is incorrect because the non-custodial parent's consent may not be legally required if the custodial parent is available to provide consent. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining consent should precede any administration of medications. Choice D is incorrect as the stepfather's consent may not hold legal weight unless designated as a legal guardian.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is concerned about the risk of alcohol withdraw al syndrome in a 45-year-old postoperative patient. Which statement indicates an unders tanding of management of this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because initiating the alcohol withdrawal protocol shows an understanding of managing a patient at risk for alcohol withdrawal syndrome. This protocol involves carefully monitoring the patient's symptoms, providing appropriate medications, and ensuring a safe environment. Option A is incorrect as it downplays the seriousness of alcohol withdrawal. Option B is incorrect as there are assessment tools available for identifying alcohol withdrawal. Option C is incorrect as pain management should be tailored to the individual's needs, not necessarily lessened due to alcohol withdrawal risk.
Question 8 of 9
What is the treatment for an acute exacerbation of asthma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids. Bronchodilators help to quickly open up the airways during an asthma exacerbation, providing immediate relief. Intravenous corticosteroids help reduce airway inflammation and prevent further worsening of symptoms. Corticosteroids by mouth (Choice A) are not as effective as intravenous administration during an acute exacerbation. Prone positioning or continuous lateral rotation (Choice C) is not a recommended treatment for asthma exacerbation. Sedation and inhaled bronchodilators (Choice D) are not appropriate as sedation can depress respiratory function and worsen the condition.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a new arteriovenous fistula, but does not hear a bruit or feel a thrill. Pulses distal to the fistula are not palpable. The nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: notify the provider immediately. The absence of bruit, thrill, and palpable distal pulses in a new arteriovenous fistula suggests potential complications like thrombosis or stenosis, requiring urgent intervention. Notifying the provider promptly allows for timely assessment and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Summary: A: Reassessing the patient in an hour may delay necessary intervention for a potentially serious issue. B: Raising the arm above the level of the patient’s heart does not address the underlying problem and may not improve the situation. D: Applying warm packs to the fistula site is not the appropriate intervention for the absence of bruit and thrill and may not address the underlying cause.