ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
When examining the nares of a 45-year-old patient who complains of rhinorrhea, itching of the nose and eyes, and sneezing, the nurse notes the following: pale, swollen turbinates and clear rhinorrhea. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Allergic rhinitis. The patient's symptoms of rhinorrhea, itching, and sneezing, along with pale, swollen turbinates and clear rhinorrhea, are indicative of allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis is characterized by an allergic response to allergens, leading to inflammation of the nasal passages and increased mucus production. Nasal polyps (choice A) typically present with nasal congestion and reduced sense of smell. Acute sinusitis (choice B) would likely present with purulent nasal discharge and facial pain/pressure. Nasal carcinoma (choice D) is unlikely in this case due to the patient's symptoms and age.
Question 2 of 9
A patient's laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The nurse would examine the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: thyroid gland. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. An elevated thyroxine level indicates a potential thyroid gland dysfunction. The nurse would examine the thyroid gland to assess its size, texture, and any signs of abnormalities. Incorrect choices: B: Parotid gland - This gland is responsible for producing saliva, not thyroxine. C: Adrenal gland - Responsible for producing hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, not thyroxine. D: Thyroxine gland - There is no such thing as a "thyroxine gland." Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.
Question 4 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following statements about otoscopic examination of a newborn would be true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the normal eardrum of a newborn can appear thick and opaque due to the presence of vernix or desquamated epithelium. Immobility of the drum (Choice A) is not a normal finding in a newborn and could indicate a problem. An "injected" membrane (Choice B) would suggest inflammation or infection, not necessarily infection. The appearance of the membrane in a newborn is not identical to that of an adult (Choice D) as it may have a different color, thickness, or opacity due to developmental differences.
Question 6 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient's eyes for the accommodation response and would expect to see:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: convergence of the axes of the eyes. During the accommodation response, the eyes converge to focus on a near object. This is necessary to maintain clear vision when looking at close objects. Dilation of the pupils (A) is not part of the accommodation response. A consensual light reflex (B) refers to both pupils constricting simultaneously in response to light, not specific to accommodation. Conjugate movement of the eyes (C) refers to both eyes moving together in the same direction, which is not the primary action during accommodation.
Question 8 of 9
During history-taking, a patient tells the nurse that he has frequent nosebleeds and asks about the best way to prevent them. What would be the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient experiences nosebleeds, the best way to stop it is by sitting straight with the head tilted slightly forward and pinching the nose firmly for about 10-15 minutes. This position helps reduce blood flow to the nose and promotes clotting. It is important not to tilt the head back as it can lead to blood going down the throat and potentially causing choking or vomiting. Cold compresses can also be applied to help constrict blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the proper technique for managing nosebleeds and can potentially worsen the situation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is taking history from a patient who may have a perforated eardrum. What would be an important question in this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it directly addresses the concern of a possible perforated eardrum by inquiring about the relationship between ear pain and discharge. This is crucial in assessing the severity of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on subjective symptoms not specific to a perforated eardrum. Choice B is irrelevant as it doesn't pertain to the immediate concern. Choice C is also incorrect as it doesn't target the current issue of a potential perforated eardrum. Asking about ear pain and discharge helps determine the likelihood of a perforated eardrum and guides further assessment and care.