ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
When examining the nares of a 45-year-old patient who complains of rhinorrhea, itching of the nose and eyes, and sneezing, the nurse notes the following: pale, swollen turbinates and clear rhinorrhea. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Allergic rhinitis. The patient's symptoms of rhinorrhea, itching, and sneezing, along with pale, swollen turbinates and clear rhinorrhea, are indicative of allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis is characterized by an allergic response to allergens, leading to inflammation of the nasal passages and increased mucus production. Nasal polyps (choice A) typically present with nasal congestion and reduced sense of smell. Acute sinusitis (choice B) would likely present with purulent nasal discharge and facial pain/pressure. Nasal carcinoma (choice D) is unlikely in this case due to the patient's symptoms and age.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following statements about otoscopic examination of a newborn would be true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the normal eardrum of a newborn can appear thick and opaque due to the presence of vernix or desquamated epithelium. Immobility of the drum (Choice A) is not a normal finding in a newborn and could indicate a problem. An "injected" membrane (Choice B) would suggest inflammation or infection, not necessarily infection. The appearance of the membrane in a newborn is not identical to that of an adult (Choice D) as it may have a different color, thickness, or opacity due to developmental differences.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 4 of 9
A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble reading the paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal. These findings suggest that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: she may have macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is characterized by loss of central vision while peripheral vision remains intact. In this case, the woman's difficulty with tasks that require central vision, such as reading and recognizing faces, points towards macular degeneration. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Her symptoms indicate a specific vision problem, not just age-related changes. C: Cataracts typically cause blurred vision, not loss of central vision. D: Glaucoma typically affects peripheral vision first before progressing to central vision loss.
Question 5 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is unable to suction the nares of a newborn immediately following delivery. The attempt to pass a catheter through both nasal cavities has met with no success. What would be the nurse's best action in this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Immediate intervention is crucial as the newborn needs clear airways for breathing. 2. Inability to suction the nares can lead to respiratory distress and compromise the infant's oxygenation. 3. Waiting or attempting again may delay necessary actions, risking the baby's health. 4. Physician's assistance may be needed, but recognizing the urgency is the nurse's responsibility to ensure timely care. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Attempting to suction again with a bulb syringe may not resolve the issue and delay necessary intervention. B. Waiting for the infant to stop crying is not ideal as it may prolong the risk of respiratory distress. D. While physician assistance may be necessary, immediate recognition of the critical situation is the nurse's primary responsibility.
Question 7 of 9
While assessing the tonsils of a 30-year-old, the nurse notes that they look involuted and granular, and appear to have deep crypts. What is the correct follow-up to these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nothing, this is the appearance of normal tonsils. In a 30-year-old, tonsils commonly appear involuted, granular, and have deep crypts due to natural aging and exposure to infections. This is considered a normal variant and does not typically require further intervention. Referral to a specialist (Option A) is unnecessary as these findings are within the normal range. Continuing the assessment (Option C) may not yield significant abnormal findings related to the tonsils. Throat culture for strep (Option D) is not indicated unless there are specific symptoms or signs of infection.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is performing middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and visible landmarks. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. The presence of dense white patches on the tympanic membrane in a patient with a history of chronic ear infections indicates scarring from previous infections. This is a common finding in individuals who have experienced recurrent middle ear infections. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Fungal infections typically present with different characteristics such as discoloration or debris in the ear canal, not dense white patches on the tympanic membrane. C) Blood in the middle ear would manifest as redness or hemorrhage, not white patches. D) While scarring may affect hearing, the description of the tympanic membrane in this case does not suggest any immediate concern for hearing loss.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment of an individual with otitis externa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enlarged regional lymph nodes. In otitis externa, there may be regional lymphadenopathy due to inflammation and infection. Rhinorrhea (A) is associated with upper respiratory infections, not otitis externa. Periorbital edema (B) is seen in conditions like periorbital cellulitis. Pain over the maxillary sinuses (C) is indicative of sinusitis, not otitis externa.