When examining a patient with a suspicion of food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he had eaten the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is often caused by consuming improperly canned or preserved foods, particularly meats. The spores of the Clostridium botulinum bacteria can grow in anaerobic conditions, such as those found in improperly canned foods, leading to the production of the botulinum toxin. The symptoms of botulism align with those characteristic of the patient's condition. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Custard pastry from private bakery - Unlikely to be the cause of botulism as this type of food is not typically associated with the growth of Clostridium botulinum. C: Sour cream from local dairy factory - While dairy products can sometimes be sources of foodborne illness, botulism is not commonly associated with sour cream. D: Strawberries from suburban vegetable garden - Botulism is not typically transmitted through fresh fruits or vegetables, making this an unlikely source of infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Hutchinson's triad is a classic presentation of congenital syphilis in children. Barrel-shaped incisors, parenchymatous keratitis, and deafness are key manifestations. Barrel-shaped incisors result from mulberry molars, a type of abnormal tooth. Parenchymatous keratitis is an inflammation of the cornea, a common ocular sign in congenital syphilis. Deafness can occur due to damage to the auditory nerve caused by the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present with the specific triad of symptoms seen in congenital syphilis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoon is responsible for causing amoebic dysentery, which presents with bloody diarrhea. The "raspberry jelly" appearance of stool is due to the presence of mucosal lining and blood. The large mononuclear cells with absorbed red blood cells are characteristic of the histopathology of Entamoeba histolytica infection. Giardia lamblia (B) causes watery diarrhea, not bloody stools. Campylobacter jejuni (C) is a bacterial pathogen associated with gastroenteritis, but does not typically cause bloody diarrhea. Toxoplasma gondii (D) causes toxoplasmosis, a systemic infection with symptoms such as fever and lymphadenopathy, but not bloody diarrhea.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with Balantidiasis, caused by the parasite Balantidium coli. The presence of ciliated oval organisms in the feces is characteristic of this disease. Ulcers in the large intestine are common in Balantidiasis due to tissue invasion by the parasite. Headache, fever, and abdominal pain are typical symptoms. Other choices can be ruled out: B) Amebiasis presents with similar symptoms but usually involves the liver. C) Toxoplasmosis typically presents with lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms. D) Lambliasis usually causes watery diarrhea without blood or mucus. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythrocytic schizogony. In this case, the patient most likely has malaria, specifically caused by Plasmodium falciparum. The fever attacks every 2 days (tertian fever) are characteristic of P. falciparum infection. The cycle of erythrocytic schizogony in P. falciparum is around 48 hours, leading to the recurring fever pattern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tissue schizogony does not cause the characteristic fever pattern, exotoxins are not typically involved in malaria fever, and gametocytes do not directly cause fever attacks.