ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When evaluating a patient with a central venous catheter, the nurse observes that the insertion site is red and tender to touch and the patient’s temperature is 101.8°F. What should the nurse plan to do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the catheter and culture the tip. The patient's symptoms indicate a possible catheter-related infection. Discontinuing the catheter will prevent further infection spread. Culturing the tip will identify the specific pathogen causing the infection, guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because giving analgesics alone will not address the underlying infection. Choice C is incorrect as changing the flush system is not a priority when infection is suspected. Choice D is incorrect as checking the site more frequently does not address the need for immediate action to address the infection.
Question 2 of 9
The assessment of pain and anxiety is a continuous proces s. When critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety, what is the nurse’s first priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To identify and treat the underlying cause. The first priority of the nurse when critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety is to determine the root cause of the anxiety. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause, the nurse can effectively manage the patient's anxiety and prevent further complications. Administering medications without understanding the cause can mask the symptoms and lead to ineffective treatment. Reassessing the patient hourly may not address the root cause and could delay appropriate intervention. Pain medication may not be necessary if the anxiety is not related to pain. Treating the underlying cause ensures holistic and effective care for the patient.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The objective is for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Step 2: Choice C states that the client drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift, totaling 1200 mL (240 mL x 5) which exceeds the required amount. Step 3: Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it demonstrates successful achievement of the objective by ensuring the client has ingested enough fluid within the specified time frame. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific objective of fluid intake set for the client. Option A focuses on intake and output, option B relates to abdominal comfort, and option D is about voiding, none of which directly address the specified objective of fluid ingestion.
Question 4 of 9
A patient in hospice care is experiencing dyspnea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer oxygen as prescribed. Dyspnea in a hospice patient often indicates respiratory distress, and administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulty. Positioning the patient flat on their back (A) may worsen dyspnea due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. Restricting fluid intake (C) is not appropriate as dehydration can exacerbate respiratory distress. Chest physiotherapy (D) may not be suitable for a hospice patient experiencing dyspnea as it can be physically taxing and may not address the underlying cause effectively.
Question 5 of 9
In assessing a patient, the nurse understands that what sym ptomology is an early sign of hypoxemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Restlessness is an early sign of hypoxemia due to the body's response to low oxygen levels. Step 2: Restlessness occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen intake. Step 3: Other choices are incorrect because clubbing and cyanosis are late signs, while hypotension is not a specific early sign of hypoxemia.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the catheter site for redness and/or swelling is crucial for early detection of infection. Redness and swelling are common signs of infection at the catheter site, which requires prompt intervention. Applying a sterile gauze dressing (choice A) is not necessary for a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter. Replacing the transparent dressing every 10 days (choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Using the catheter for drawing blood samples (choice D) is not appropriate as it can introduce contaminants and increase the risk of infection. Regular assessment of the catheter site is essential for early detection and prevention of complications.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patient’s urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. The patient’s blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats/min. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats/min with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: contact the provider and expect a prescription for a normal saline bolus. The patient is showing signs of hypovolemia with decreased urine output, low blood pressure, and elevated heart rate. This indicates inadequate perfusion and potential hypovolemic shock. Administering a normal saline bolus will help restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Waiting for the provider to make rounds (option B) could delay necessary intervention. Continuing to evaluate urine output for 2 more hours (option C) is not appropriate given the patient's current condition. Ignoring the urine output (option D) is dangerous as it could lead to further complications.
Question 8 of 9
When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87°F (30.6°C), which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When rewarming a hypothermic patient, the goal is to gradually increase their core temperature. A core temperature of 94°F (34.4°C) is still below the normal range, but it indicates that the rewarming process is working. Shivering (A) is a normal response to rewarming. A decrease in blood pressure (B) may be expected due to peripheral vasodilation during rewarming. Developing atrial fibrillation (C) may be a concern but does not necessarily indicate that rewarming should be discontinued. Therefore, choice D is correct as it signifies progress in the rewarming process.
Question 9 of 9
A 53-year-old, 80-kg patient is admitted to the cardiac sur gical intensive care unit after cardiac surgery with the following arterial blood gas (ABG ) levels. What is the nurse’s interpretation of these values? pH 7.4 PaCO 40 mm Hg Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L PaO 95 mm Hg O saturation 97% Respirations 20 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct interpretation is C: Normal ABG values. 1. pH is within the normal range of 7.35-7.45. 2. PaCO2 is 40 mm Hg, within the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg. 3. Bicarbonate is 24 mEq/L, within the normal range of 22-26 mEq/L. 4. PaO2 is 95 mm Hg, within the normal range of 80-100 mm Hg. 5. Oxygen saturation is 97%, which is normal. 6. Respirations are also within the normal range at 20 breaths per minute. Overall, all values fall within the normal range, indicating a well-maintained acid-base balance. Other choices are incorrect because there are no abnormalities that would suggest compensated metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, or respiratory acidosis based on the given ABG values.