When evaluating a patient who is taking orlistat (Xenical), which is an intended therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased weight. Orlistat works by inhibiting the absorption of dietary fats in the intestines, leading to reduced calorie intake and ultimately weight loss. This is the intended therapeutic effect of orlistat. A: Increased wakefulness - Orlistat does not affect wakefulness. B: Increased appetite - Orlistat actually helps reduce appetite by promoting a feeling of fullness. D: Decreased hyperactivity - Orlistat does not have any direct impact on hyperactivity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Diuretics can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Step 2: Orthostatic hypotension increases the risk of falling and injury, especially in older adults. Step 3: By instructing the patient to take extra precautions when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls and injuries. Step 4: This teaching point is crucial for promoting the patient's safety and independence at home. Summary: Choice A is incorrect because the timing of diuretic intake with meals is not as critical as preventing falls. Choice B is incorrect as skipping doses can lead to uncontrolled hypertension. Choice C is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can have negative consequences and potassium supplements may not be necessary. Choice D is correct as it addresses the potential side effect of orthostatic hypotension and emphasizes safety measures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because active transport involves the movement of molecules against their concentration gradient, requiring energy expenditure. This process is crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis and ensuring proper functioning of cells. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because active transport is not based on diffusion, does require energy consumption, and does not involve engulfing of molecules by vesicle formation. It is important to understand the fundamental concept of active transport to differentiate it from passive transport mechanisms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The increase of second messengers concentration, such as cAMP, cGMP, and Ca2+, leads to the activation of protein kinases and subsequent protein phosphorylation. This is because second messengers act as signaling molecules that trigger a cascade of intracellular events, including the activation of protein kinases. Protein kinases then phosphorylate target proteins, modulating their activity and initiating various cellular responses. Therefore, choice B is correct as it accurately describes the downstream effect of increased second messengers' concentration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established signaling pathway involving second messengers and protein kinases.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Spinal anesthesia. Spinal anesthesia involves injecting local anesthetics directly into the subarachnoid space, which is within the spinal canal. This allows for the anesthetic to block sensation in the lower part of the body. Topical anesthesia (A) is applied to the surface of the skin, infiltrative anesthesia (B) involves injecting local anesthetics into tissues surrounding the surgical site, and regional anesthesia (C) includes nerve blocks to numb specific areas. Spinal anesthesia is distinct as it targets the spinal nerves directly within the epidural or subarachnoid spaces.