ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 5
When evaluating a client's response to fluid replacement therapy, the observation that indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organ is;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour. Adequate tissue perfusion is best indicated by a sufficient urinary output, as it demonstrates proper kidney perfusion and function. A low urinary output may suggest inadequate perfusion. Explanation for other choices: B: Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20 is not a reliable indicator of tissue perfusion to vital organs. C: Pulse rates alone are not enough to indicate tissue perfusion as they can be influenced by various factors. D: Blood pressure readings alone may not accurately reflect tissue perfusion, especially in the context of fluid replacement therapy.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the ff. statements would the nurse understand is true when assessing normal auditory acuity using the Rinne test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a normal Rinne test, air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears. This is due to the fact that air conduction involves the transmission of sound waves through the external auditory canal, middle ear, and inner ear, which is more efficient than bone conduction where the sound waves are transmitted directly to the inner ear through the bones of the skull. Therefore, when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (bone conduction) and then moved next to the ear (air conduction), the sound should be heard longer through air conduction. Choice A is incorrect because normal auditory acuity does not necessarily mean equal perception in both ears. Choice C is incorrect as bone conduction should be heard shorter than air conduction in a normal Rinne test. Choice D is incorrect as the test does not determine which ear perceives sound better, but rather the difference in duration between air and bone conduction.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is admitted for a splenectomy. Why is an injection of Vit. K ordered before surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Step 2: A splenectomy increases the risk of bleeding due to decreased platelet sequestration. Step 3: Preoperative Vitamin K injection helps correct any clotting deficiencies. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as Vitamin K does not prevent infection. - Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin K does not directly promote healing. - Choice D is incorrect as Vitamin K does not dry secretions.
Question 4 of 5
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.
Question 5 of 5
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking piroxicam with food or an oral antacid can help reduce GI irritation as it can protect the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Spacing the administration every 4 hours (choice A) may not necessarily prevent GI upset. Using the drug for a short time only (choice B) may not address the immediate concern of GI irritation. Decreasing the piroxicam dosage (choice C) may not be necessary if taking it with food or an antacid can effectively alleviate the GI upset.
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