ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
When evaluating a client's response to fluid replacement therapy, the observation that indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organ is;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour. Adequate tissue perfusion is best indicated by a sufficient urinary output, as it demonstrates proper kidney perfusion and function. A low urinary output may suggest inadequate perfusion. Explanation for other choices: B: Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20 is not a reliable indicator of tissue perfusion to vital organs. C: Pulse rates alone are not enough to indicate tissue perfusion as they can be influenced by various factors. D: Blood pressure readings alone may not accurately reflect tissue perfusion, especially in the context of fluid replacement therapy.
Question 2 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.
Question 3 of 9
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bodily fluids and excretions (urine, feces, vomitus) can become contaminated with radiation from the implant. Therefore, they should be considered highly radioactive and handled appropriately. Choice B is incorrect because the client may remain radioactive for a longer period than 10 days post-implant removal. Choice C is incorrect because soiled linens should be handled according to radiation safety protocols and removed promptly. Choice D is incorrect because bed rest is not necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider; the client should be encouraged to move around as tolerated to prevent complications.
Question 4 of 9
A client with supraglottic cancer undergoes a partial laryngectomy. Postoperatively, a cuffed tracheostomy tube is in place. When removing secretions that pool above the cuff, the nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exhale deeply as the nurse re-inflates the cuff. Rationale: 1. When the cuff of the tracheostomy tube is deflated, the client should be instructed to exhale deeply to prevent aspiration of secretions. 2. Exhaling helps to clear the airway by pushing secretions out of the trachea, reducing the risk of aspiration. 3. Inhaling or holding the breath while the cuff is being re-inflated can increase the risk of inhaling secretions. 4. Coughing as the cuff is being deflated (choice A) may not be as effective in clearing secretions as exhaling deeply. 5. Taking a deep breath as the nurse deflates the cuff (choice C) may not be as effective as exhaling deeply in preventing aspiration. In summary, choice D is the correct answer because exhaling deeply helps clear secretions and reduce the risk of aspiration, while the other choices may
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Widening pulse pressure. This indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) as it signifies a significant difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. A widening pulse pressure is a key sign of impending herniation and requires immediate intervention. A: Gradual increase does not provide a clear indication of acute changes in ICP. C: Rapid drop followed by gradual increase may suggest other conditions and is not specific to increasing ICP. D: Rapid fluctuations may occur in various scenarios and do not specifically point to increasing ICP. In summary, a widening pulse pressure is the most critical and specific indicator of increasing ICP among the choices provided.
Question 6 of 9
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin is an alkylating agent that works by cross-linking DNA, preventing DNA synthesis and leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells. Choice B, inhibiting ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis. Choice C, being cell cycle-phase specific, is incorrect as mitomycin affects cells in all phases of the cell cycle. Choice D, inhibiting protein synthesis, is incorrect because mitomycin's primary mode of action is on DNA replication, not protein synthesis.
Question 7 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and asks what causes it. The nurse would respond that the destruction of the thyroid in this condition is due to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autoantibodies. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland by producing autoantibodies against thyroid proteins such as thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase. These autoantibodies lead to inflammation and destruction of thyroid tissue. Antigen-antibody complexes (choice A) are not the main mechanism in Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Viral (choice B) and bacterial infections (choice D) do not directly cause autoimmune destruction of the thyroid in this condition. Autoantibodies targeting the thyroid gland are the key pathogenic factor in Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
Question 9 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in nursing clinical decision-making. In this scenario, the nurse considers the patient's self-reported information (time of last dressing change and observation of old and new drainage) as key data points to validate the need for changing the wound dressing. This aligns with the principles of evidence-based practice and ensures that the decision is based on accurate and relevant information. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the systematic validation of data to inform the nursing decision-making process. Choice B relies on family input rather than objective data, Choice C jumps to a treatment decision without confirming the underlying cause, and Choice D does not involve validating the patient's reported symptom before taking action.