ATI RN
Chapter 2 pharmacologic principles Questions
Question 1 of 5
When drug/drug interactions involve inhibition of metabolism, which of the following types of drugs are of the most concern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of drug interactions involving inhibition of metabolism, drugs with a narrow therapeutic index are of the most concern. This is because drugs with a narrow therapeutic index have a small difference between the minimum effective concentration and the minimum toxic concentration in the body. When the metabolism of these drugs is inhibited, it can lead to a significant increase in their concentration in the body, pushing them closer to toxic levels and increasing the risk of adverse effects. Option A is correct because drugs with a narrow therapeutic index are more likely to cause harm when their metabolism is affected by interactions with other drugs. Option B, drugs with a high extraction ratio, are less affected by changes in metabolism because they are efficiently removed from the blood during the first pass through the liver. Therefore, they are not of the most concern in this scenario. Option C, drugs that are highly polar, may have different implications for metabolism but are not specifically associated with increased concern in the context of inhibition of metabolism. Option D, drugs that are highly bound to albumin, may also be affected by interactions but are not as critical as drugs with a narrow therapeutic index in terms of potential harm due to inhibition of metabolism. In an educational context, understanding the concept of drug interactions and their impact on metabolism is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective medication management for patients. Recognizing which types of drugs are most vulnerable to interactions can guide clinical decision-making and help prevent adverse drug events.
Question 2 of 5
Represents rate & extent of drug absorption as measured by area under curve
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Bioavailability (F). Bioavailability is the fraction of the administered dose of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged form. It represents both the rate and extent of drug absorption and is quantitatively measured by the area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC). A higher bioavailability indicates a larger amount of drug is absorbed into the bloodstream. Systemic clearance (A) is the volume of plasma from which the drug is completely removed per unit time, Volume of distribution (B) is a theoretical volume that describes how a drug is distributed throughout the body, and Half-life (C) is the time taken for the plasma concentration of a drug to reduce by half. These parameters are not direct measures of drug absorption rate and extent. In an educational context, understanding bioavailability is crucial for determining the effectiveness of a drug and its dosage regimen. It influences how much of the drug actually exerts its pharmacological effects in the body. Pharmacokinetic principles, like bioavailability, are fundamental for healthcare professionals to comprehend to ensure safe and optimal drug therapy outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Wrong statement concerning pharmacokinetics of H2-receptor antagonists is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is option A: High bioavailability. H2-receptor antagonists, such as famotidine and ranitidine, typically have high bioavailability, meaning a large percentage of the administered dose reaches systemic circulation unchanged. This is due to their good absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the statement about high bioavailability being a wrong statement concerning pharmacokinetics of H2-receptor antagonists is accurate. Option B is incorrect because it correctly states that 50% of the dose of famotidine is decomposed by gastric acidity, which is a factor affecting its bioavailability. Option C is incorrect as it accurately describes the hepatic first pass effect on ranitidine, not famotidine. Option D is incorrect as famotidine is primarily excreted renally, making it suitable for use in patients with liver dysfunction due to reduced hepatic metabolism requirements. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacokinetics of H2-receptor antagonists is crucial for healthcare professionals when prescribing these medications to patients. Knowledge of factors affecting bioavailability, metabolism, and excretion helps in optimizing drug therapy to achieve desired clinical outcomes while minimizing adverse effects. Pharmacokinetic principles play a vital role in individualizing drug regimens and ensuring safe and effective pharmacotherapy.
Question 4 of 5
All the following are adverse effects of metoclopramide except
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Constipation. Metoclopramide is a medication used to treat gastrointestinal disorders by increasing muscle contractions in the upper digestive tract. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of metoclopramide. Option A) Drowsiness & nervousness can occur as side effects of metoclopramide due to its effects on the central nervous system. Option B) Extrapyramidal adverse reactions are a well-known side effect of metoclopramide, characterized by symptoms such as muscle stiffness, tremors, and involuntary movements. Option C) Metoclopramide can indeed increase prolactin levels, leading to conditions like galactorrhea (abnormal milk production), gynecomastia (enlargement of male breast tissue), and impotence. Educational context: Understanding the adverse effects of medications is crucial in clinical practice to anticipate potential complications and provide appropriate care. By knowing the side effect profile of drugs like metoclopramide, healthcare providers can monitor patients effectively and manage any adverse reactions that may arise. This knowledge also contributes to safe medication administration and patient education regarding expected side effects.
Question 5 of 5
In vomiting due to motion sickness, the following is (are) used
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of motion sickness-induced vomiting, the correct answer is D) Diphenhydramine. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, is often used to alleviate symptoms of motion sickness due to its antiemetic (anti-vomiting) properties. It works by blocking histamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness. Option A) Hyoscine, also known as scopolamine, is another medication commonly used for motion sickness. While effective, it is more commonly used for prevention rather than treatment of vomiting. Option B) Metoclopramide is primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting caused by other conditions like chemotherapy, surgery, or gastroenteritis. It is not typically the first choice for motion sickness-induced vomiting. Option C) Ondansetron is a powerful antiemetic commonly used for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, as well as post-operative nausea. It is not typically indicated for motion sickness-related vomiting. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of medications for specific conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals. By knowing the mechanisms of action and indications for different antiemetic medications, healthcare providers can make informed decisions to provide the most effective treatment for their patients. This knowledge helps optimize patient outcomes and safety.