When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need

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Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 9

When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Some form of vagotomy Rationale: 1. Vagotomy is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the vagus nerve to reduce acid production in the stomach, which can help in treating ulcers. 2. Vagotomy is often recommended when ulcers are refractory to medical therapy, making it an appropriate surgical option. 3. Lifelong vitamin D replacement (A) is not typically necessary for ulcer treatment. Excision of the ulcer (B) is not a common treatment and does not address the underlying cause. Eating smaller meals (C) may help manage symptoms but is not a surgical option for refractory ulcers.

Question 2 of 9

Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia. In this case, the patient's symptoms of nocturia, urinary urgency, and post-void dribbling are not indicative of prostate enlargement. Given that the digital rectal examination revealed a normal-sized prostate with no hypertrophy, it is essential to explore other potential causes of nocturia in this patient. By assessing non-prostate causes of nocturia, such as diabetes, urinary tract infection, medication side effects, or sleep disorders, a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan can be developed. This approach will lead to better patient outcomes compared to focusing solely on prostate-related evaluations. Option A: Administration of the AUA Symptom Scale is not the best approach in this case because the patient's symptoms are not primarily related to prostate enlargement. Option B: Laboratory assessment to include a PSA is not necessary since the digital rectal examination already indicated a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. Option C: Ordering a

Question 3 of 9

Trial of scar is likely to have an auspicious outcome if the

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an estimated fetal weight below 3500 grams indicates a lower risk of complications during childbirth. Higher fetal weight increases the likelihood of shoulder dystocia and birth injuries. Maternal body mass index, gestational age, and maternal age do not directly impact the likelihood of a favorable outcome during a trial of scar.

Question 4 of 9

Which one of the following therapies is the MOST incorporated in the management of clients with gestational diabetes?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Short acting insulin. In gestational diabetes, short acting insulin is preferred as it provides immediate control over blood sugar levels after meals. This is crucial in managing the condition to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Therapeutic diet alone (choice A) may not be sufficient to control blood sugar levels, while long-acting insulin (choice B) may not provide the rapid response needed after meals. Oral hypoglycemics (choice C) are generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, short acting insulin is the most appropriate therapy for managing gestational diabetes effectively.

Question 5 of 9

He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

Question 6 of 9

A pregnant woman with acute pyelonephritis is advised on a high fluid intake so as to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Correct dehydration. Acute pyelonephritis can lead to dehydration due to fever, vomiting, and decreased fluid intake. High fluid intake helps correct dehydration by maintaining adequate fluid balance and preventing further complications. Increasing urine output (choice D) is a consequence of correcting dehydration. Promoting enough rest (choice A) is important but not the primary reason for advising high fluid intake. Relief of irritability (choice C) is not directly related to the management of acute pyelonephritis.

Question 7 of 9

Which one of the following statements is correct with regards to face presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Majority are classified as secondary face presentation. In face presentation, the fetal head is hyperextended, presenting the face to the birth canal. Primary face presentation is rare. The bi-parietal diameter is not the presenting diameter in face presentation, as it is in vertex presentation. Locating the anterior fontanelle is not diagnostic of face presentation, as the fontanelles can be difficult to palpate during labor. Therefore, the correct statement is that the majority of face presentations are classified as secondary face presentation.

Question 8 of 9

Complete uterine rupture: b) Define complete uterine rupture

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Complete uterine rupture involves a full-thickness disruption of all uterine layers, including the serosa, myometrium, and endometrium. This leads to a complete separation of the uterine wall, potentially resulting in severe bleeding and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect as it only involves the outermost layer of the uterus. Choice C is incorrect as uterine contractions are usually present during uterine rupture. Choice D is incorrect as the correct definition of complete uterine rupture involves the entire uterine layers being affected.

Question 9 of 9

The presenting diameter in brow presentation is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the submentobregmatic diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is partially extended, causing the forehead (bregma) to be the presenting part. The submentobregmatic diameter is the distance between the chin (mentum) and the highest point of the forehead (bregma). This diameter is crucial for successful delivery in brow presentation as it is the smallest diameter that must pass through the maternal pelvis. Summary of other choices: B: Suboccipitofrontal - This diameter is not relevant in brow presentation as it involves the back of the head. C: Occipitalfrontal - This diameter is the distance between the back of the head and the forehead, also not relevant in brow presentation. D: Mentovertical - This diameter is the distance between the chin and the vertex of the head, not the forehead.

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