ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Some form of vagotomy Rationale: 1. Vagotomy is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the vagus nerve to reduce acid production in the stomach, which can help in treating ulcers. 2. Vagotomy is often recommended when ulcers are refractory to medical therapy, making it an appropriate surgical option. 3. Lifelong vitamin D replacement (A) is not typically necessary for ulcer treatment. Excision of the ulcer (B) is not a common treatment and does not address the underlying cause. Eating smaller meals (C) may help manage symptoms but is not a surgical option for refractory ulcers.
Question 2 of 5
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Provide counseling to the patient regarding her options. The AGACNP's initial action should prioritize the patient's well-being and autonomy. Counseling allows the patient to understand her options, including legal, medical, and emotional support. Reporting to law enforcement (A) without the patient's consent violates her autonomy. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (B) disregards the potential danger and trauma she may face. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (C) may not address the immediate emotional and physical needs of the patient.
Question 3 of 5
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization. Rationale: 1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery. 2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize. 3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of
Question 4 of 5
The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continue the current regimen. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used to treat ascites. The weight loss of 0.75 kg/day indicates that the current regimen is effective. Continuing the regimen is appropriate to avoid electrolyte imbalances. Discontinuing spironolactone (Choice B) can lead to rebound edema. Adding a loop diuretic (Choice C) may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbances. Large-volume paracentesis (Choice D) is reserved for cases of refractory ascites.
Question 5 of 5
Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are among the complications of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct: 1. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. 2. Prolonged vomiting can lead to electrolyte imbalances and nutritional deficiencies. 3. Vitamin B deficiency, specifically thiamine, can result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. 4. Mallory-Weiss syndrome can occur due to repeated retching and vomiting. 5. Therefore, hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to both Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome. Summary: A: Placenta praevia is related to abnormal placental placement, not vomiting. B: Hypertensive disorders are associated with high blood pressure, not vomiting-related complications. C: Vitamin B deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy but is not directly caused by hyperemesis gravidarum.
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