When considering facility admissions for mental healthcare, what characteristic is unique to a voluntary admission?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in a voluntary admission, the patient willingly seeks mental healthcare and does not pose a substantial threat to themselves or others. This ensures that the patient has the capacity to make decisions about their own care. Choice B is incorrect because the right to seek legal counsel applies to involuntary admissions where the patient's rights are restricted. Choice C is incorrect as a written request is not always necessary for voluntary admissions. Choice D is incorrect because a previous diagnosis is not necessarily a requirement for voluntary admission.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct diagnostic procedure that the nurse should expect to prepare the patient for first is a Computed Tomography (CT) scan (Option B). A CT scan is the most appropriate initial imaging study for differentiating between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarcts due to its ability to provide detailed cross-sectional images of the brain, allowing for the visualization of any structural abnormalities such as infarcts or brain atrophy associated with Alzheimer's disease. Skull x-rays (Option A) are not commonly used for diagnosing intracranial conditions due to their limited ability to provide detailed information about brain structures. Positron-emission tomography (PET) (Option C) and Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) (Option D) are functional imaging modalities that can assess brain function and blood flow but are typically used after structural abnormalities have been identified to further characterize the nature of the condition. Educationally, it is important for nurses to understand the rationale behind selecting specific diagnostic procedures to ensure appropriate and timely patient care. By knowing the strengths and limitations of each imaging modality, nurses can advocate for the most effective diagnostic approach, leading to accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment planning for patients exhibiting cognitive changes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) Dopamine-blocking effects. This side effect of restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in motion is known as akathisia and is commonly associated with medications that block dopamine receptors in the brain, such as typical antipsychotic medications. Anticholinergic effects (Option A) typically present with symptoms like dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation, not restlessness. Endocrine-stimulating effects (Option C) would not directly cause restlessness or the need to be in motion. The ability to stimulate spinal nerves (Option D) would not lead to the specific symptoms described in the question. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the pharmacological effects of psychotropic medications and the potential side effects they can cause. It is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working with individuals with mental illness, to be able to recognize and manage side effects like akathisia to ensure the overall well-being of their patients. Understanding drug actions and potential side effects is essential in providing safe and effective care in mental health settings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Imipramine (Tofranil) because it is a tricyclic antidepressant that commonly exhibits anticholinergic side effects due to its pharmacological properties. Tricyclic antidepressants like imipramine have strong anticholinergic effects, leading to symptoms such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and cognitive impairment. Option A) Lithium (Lithobid) is a mood stabilizer commonly used in bipolar disorder. While lithium can have side effects like tremors and thyroid issues, it does not typically cause anticholinergic effects. Option B) Buspirone (BuSpar) is an anxiolytic medication that does not have anticholinergic properties. It primarily works on serotonin receptors and does not lead to anticholinergic side effects. Option D) Risperidone (Risperdal) is an atypical antipsychotic that does not exert significant anticholinergic effects. Its side effect profile is more commonly associated with metabolic issues like weight gain and sedation. Educationally, understanding the side effect profiles of psychotropic medications is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care to patients. Recognizing the potential side effects allows nurses to monitor patients effectively, intervene promptly, and educate patients about what to expect. This knowledge also helps in assessing the overall impact of the medication on the patient's well-being and quality of life.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should be most alert for problems associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance in the patient receiving lithium (option A). Lithium is known to cause disturbances in electrolyte levels, particularly sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications if not monitored closely. Clozapine (option B) is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis and myocarditis, not fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Fluoxetine (option C) and venlafaxine (option D) are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), respectively, which are not typically linked to significant fluid and electrolyte disturbances. Understanding the side effects and monitoring requirements of psychotropic medications is crucial for nurses caring for patients with mental health conditions. Recognizing the specific risks associated with each medication helps ensure patient safety and wellbeing. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels, especially in patients on lithium therapy, is essential to prevent adverse effects and provide optimal care.