When classmates are asked to rate each other's likability, __________ children get many positive votes, whereas __________ children are seldom mentioned.

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Human Growth and Development Final Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

When classmates are asked to rate each other's likability, __________ children get many positive votes, whereas __________ children are seldom mentioned.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'popular; neglected.' Popular children are well-liked by their peers, hence they receive many positive votes. Neglected children, on the other hand, are often overlooked or ignored, resulting in them being seldom mentioned. Choice B is incorrect because neglected and rejected have different meanings. Choice C is incorrect as popular and rejected do not align with the likability context provided in the question. Choice D is incorrect as controversial does not directly relate to likability in the context of the question.

Question 2 of 9

The concept of ________ means that because of their genetic makeup, individuals differ in their responsiveness to qualities of the environment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, gene-environment interaction. This concept highlights that genetic factors play a role in how individuals react to environmental factors. Niche-picking (choice B) refers to the tendency of individuals to select environments that complement their genetic predispositions, not the inherent genetic differences in responsiveness. Passive correlation (choice C) involves the association between the genetic makeup of parents and the environment they provide for their children, not individual differences in responsiveness. Evocative correlation (choice D) relates to the idea that an individual's genetic traits can elicit certain responses from others in the environment, rather than individual differences in responsiveness.

Question 3 of 9

According to the lifespan perspective, _______ is supreme in its impact on the life course.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: According to the lifespan perspective, no single period is considered supreme in its impact on the life course. Each stage of life, from prenatal period through adulthood, plays a significant role in shaping an individual's development. Therefore, the correct answer is 'D: no age period.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan perspective emphasizes that all stages are important and contribute uniquely to an individual's life course.

Question 4 of 9

Which factor disrupts the brain's regulation of hunger and metabolism?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Reduced sleep is the correct answer as it affects hormones that regulate hunger and metabolism, leading to increased appetite and weight gain. Self-regulation is not directly related to the brain's regulation of hunger and metabolism. Frequent eating out may impact food choices and portion sizes but is not specifically linked to disrupting the brain's regulation. Using screen media can affect sleep patterns but is not as directly related to the brain's regulation of hunger and metabolism as reduced sleep.

Question 5 of 9

__________ may heighten the effects of a high-fat diet.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Free radicals may contribute to oxidative stress, increasing the risk of conditions associated with a high-fat diet. When consuming a high-fat diet, the body may produce more free radicals, leading to oxidative damage. Sex hormones, over-the-counter medications, and low body weight do not directly heighten the effects of a high-fat diet like free radicals do.

Question 6 of 9

According to cognitive-developmental theory, a scheme is __________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In cognitive-developmental theory, a scheme is an organized way of making sense of experience. This term refers to mental structures or frameworks that help individuals interpret and understand the world around them. Choice A is incorrect because schemes are developed through interaction with the environment. Choice B refers to object permanence, a concept from Piaget's theory of cognitive development, not schemes. Choice C describes observational learning, which is different from the concept of schemes in cognitive development.

Question 7 of 9

Development is best understood as __________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Development is best understood as a series of complex exchanges between nature (genetic factors) and nurture (environmental influences). This perspective emphasizes the interaction and interplay between genetic predispositions and environmental experiences in shaping an individual's development. Choices A and B are too extreme as they suggest that development is solely determined by genetics or solely influenced by the environment, which is not the case. Choice C is incorrect as development is not viewed as an unsolvable puzzle but rather as a dynamic process influenced by multiple factors.

Question 8 of 9

Children in middle childhood are in Piaget's _______ stage, which extends from about 7 to 11 years.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: concrete operational. During the concrete operational stage, children start to engage in logical thinking about concrete events. This stage typically occurs between the ages of 7 to 11 years. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The sensorimotor stage (choice A) is the first stage in Piaget's theory, occurring from birth to about 2 years old. The preoperational stage (choice B) follows the sensorimotor stage and occurs roughly from ages 2 to 7 years. The formal operational stage (choice D) is the final stage in Piaget's theory, where abstract thinking and hypothetical reasoning develop, usually beginning around age 11.

Question 9 of 9

At Kohlberg's Stage __________, individuals can imagine alternatives to their own social order, and they emphasize fair procedures for interpreting and changing the law.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '5, the social contract orientation.' At Kohlberg's Stage 5, individuals begin to question their own social order and focus on principles of justice and fairness. This stage emphasizes the importance of social contracts and agreements based on mutual benefit. Choice A is incorrect as the 'good boy/good girl' orientation is characteristic of Stage 3. Choice B, the social-order-maintaining orientation, does not align with the description provided in the question. Choice D, the universal ethical principle orientation, is associated with Stage 6, where individuals act based on self-chosen ethical principles.

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