ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
When caring for an anxious patient with dyspnea, which of the ff. nursing actions is most helpful to include in the plan of care to relieve anxiety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staying at patient's bedside. This is the most helpful nursing action because it provides reassurance and support to the anxious patient experiencing dyspnea. By staying at the bedside, the nurse can monitor the patient closely, provide immediate assistance if needed, and offer a calming presence. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Increasing activity levels may worsen the dyspnea and anxiety of the patient. B: Pulling the privacy curtain does not directly address the patient's anxiety or dyspnea. D: Closing the patient's door may make the patient feel isolated and increase anxiety. In summary, staying at the patient's bedside is the most effective nursing action as it addresses both the physical and emotional needs of the anxious patient with dyspnea.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is explaining the action of insulin to a newly diagnosed diabetic client. During the teaching, the nurse reviews the process of insulin secretion in the body. The nurse is correct when stating that insulin is secreted from the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Insulin is a hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreas. 2. Beta cells are responsible for monitoring blood glucose levels and secreting insulin in response to high glucose levels. 3. Insulin helps regulate blood glucose by facilitating glucose uptake into cells. 4. Adenohypophysis secretes other hormones, not insulin. 5. Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon, not insulin. 6. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid secrete calcitonin, not insulin. Summary: Choice C is correct because insulin is indeed secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not secrete insulin or are related to other hormones.
Question 3 of 9
Which antiparkinsonian drug is associated with the on-off phenomenon and the wearing-off effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Levodopa. Levodopa is associated with the on-off phenomenon and wearing-off effect in Parkinson's disease treatment due to fluctuations in its effectiveness over time. The on-off phenomenon refers to sudden and unpredictable changes in motor function, while wearing-off effect occurs when the medication's effects diminish before the next dose. Amantadine (A) is not typically associated with these phenomena. Benztropine (C) is an anticholinergic used for tremors and rigidity. Pramixole (D) is a dopamine agonist that can cause dyskinesias but is not primarily linked to on-off or wearing-off effects.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff. statements would the nurse understand is true when assessing normal auditory acuity using the Rinne test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a normal Rinne test, air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears. This is due to the fact that air conduction involves the transmission of sound waves through the external auditory canal, middle ear, and inner ear, which is more efficient than bone conduction where the sound waves are transmitted directly to the inner ear through the bones of the skull. Therefore, when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (bone conduction) and then moved next to the ear (air conduction), the sound should be heard longer through air conduction. Choice A is incorrect because normal auditory acuity does not necessarily mean equal perception in both ears. Choice C is incorrect as bone conduction should be heard shorter than air conduction in a normal Rinne test. Choice D is incorrect as the test does not determine which ear perceives sound better, but rather the difference in duration between air and bone conduction.
Question 5 of 9
A patient tells his nurse that he has delayed having TURP because he is afraid it will affect his sexual function. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “This type of surgery rarely affects the ability to have an erection or ejaculation.” This response is appropriate because it provides accurate information that addresses the patient's concern about sexual function without making any false claims. TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate) typically does not impact a patient's ability to have an erection or ejaculate. This reassurance can help alleviate the patient's fears and provide him with accurate information to make an informed decision. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: “Don’t worry about sterility; sperm production is not affected by this surgery.” - This is incorrect as the concern is more about sexual function than sterility. B: “Would you like some information about implants used for impotence?” - This is incorrect as it jumps to a solution without addressing the patient's specific concern about TURP affecting sexual function. D: “There are many methods of sexual expression that are alternatives to sexual intercourse
Question 6 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and asks what causes it. The nurse would respond that the destruction of the thyroid in this condition is due to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autoantibodies. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland by producing autoantibodies against thyroid proteins such as thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase. These autoantibodies lead to inflammation and destruction of thyroid tissue. Antigen-antibody complexes (choice A) are not the main mechanism in Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Viral (choice B) and bacterial infections (choice D) do not directly cause autoimmune destruction of the thyroid in this condition. Autoantibodies targeting the thyroid gland are the key pathogenic factor in Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform to monitor for electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in a client with a neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure intake and output. Monitoring intake and output is crucial in assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in clients with neurologic deficits. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to neurological complications, so accurate monitoring is essential. Mini-mental status and Glasgow Coma scale are assessments of mental status, not electrolyte balance. Vital signs can provide some information, but intake and output measurement is more specific for assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is making initial rounds on patients. Which intervention for a patient with poor wound healing should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observe wound appearance and edges. This is the first intervention the nurse should perform because assessing the wound's appearance and edges provides crucial information about the healing process and any signs of infection. It helps in determining the next steps in the care plan. Reinforcing the dressing (A) and performing dressing changes (B) should come after assessing the wound. Documenting wound characteristics (D) is important but should also follow the initial assessment.
Question 9 of 9
On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Following thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. 2. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle twitching, hyperirritability, numbness, and tingling. 3. These symptoms align with the client's presentation, indicating a probable electrolyte imbalance. 4. Hypocalcemia is a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid gland damage. 5. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are essential to prevent severe complications. Summary: B: Hyperkalemia - Not typically associated with thyroid surgery, symptoms differ. C: Hyponatremia - Unlikely post-thyroidectomy, symptoms don't match presentation. D: Hypermagnesemia - Rare post-thyroidectomy, symptoms and electrolyte disturbance don't align.