ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
When caring for an anxious patient with dyspnea, which of the ff. nursing actions is most helpful to include in the plan of care to relieve anxiety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staying at patient's bedside. This is the most helpful nursing action because it provides reassurance and support to the anxious patient experiencing dyspnea. By staying at the bedside, the nurse can monitor the patient closely, provide immediate assistance if needed, and offer a calming presence. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Increasing activity levels may worsen the dyspnea and anxiety of the patient. B: Pulling the privacy curtain does not directly address the patient's anxiety or dyspnea. D: Closing the patient's door may make the patient feel isolated and increase anxiety. In summary, staying at the patient's bedside is the most effective nursing action as it addresses both the physical and emotional needs of the anxious patient with dyspnea.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and asks what causes it. The nurse would respond that the destruction of the thyroid in this condition is due to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autoantibodies. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland by producing autoantibodies against thyroid proteins such as thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase. These autoantibodies lead to inflammation and destruction of thyroid tissue. Antigen-antibody complexes (choice A) are not the main mechanism in Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Viral (choice B) and bacterial infections (choice D) do not directly cause autoimmune destruction of the thyroid in this condition. Autoantibodies targeting the thyroid gland are the key pathogenic factor in Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should a nurse give a client with Hodgkin’s disease who is at risk of impaired skin integrity? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Keeping the neck in midline helps prevent compression of the lymphatic vessels in the neck, reducing the risk of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Step 2: This position also helps maintain proper blood flow and lymphatic drainage in the neck area. Step 3: Trimming nails short, using mild soap, and supporting bony prominences are not directly related to preventing impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the specific risk factor of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices are not as relevant to this particular concern.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is taken as a precautionary measure if shock develops when a client with a spinal cord injury is hospitalized?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An IV line is inserted to provide access to a vein. In shock, adequate intravenous access is crucial to administer fluids and medications rapidly. This helps stabilize the client's condition by restoring blood volume and improving circulation. Choice B is incorrect as immobilization is not a primary intervention for shock in this scenario. Choice C, traction, is not appropriate for managing shock but rather for stabilizing spinal cord injuries. Choice D, using a turning frame, is not relevant to managing shock and does not address the immediate need for fluid resuscitation.
Question 5 of 9
When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restricting sodium. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels. Sodium can worsen calcium excretion, exacerbating the condition. Restricting sodium can help reduce calcium loss. A: Restricting fluids is not necessary unless the client has kidney issues. B: Forcing fluids may not be beneficial and can lead to fluid overload. D: Restricting potassium is not typically necessary unless the client has kidney issues.
Question 6 of 9
If a patient has severe hyperkalemia, it is possible to administer calcium gluconate intravenously to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Antagonize the action of K on the heart Rationale: 1. Calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac cell membranes during hyperkalemia. 2. By antagonizing the effects of potassium on the heart, it helps prevent life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. 3. It does not lower potassium levels immediately or prevent transient renal failure. 4. Administering calcium gluconate is specific to addressing the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, not renal or overall potassium reduction.
Question 7 of 9
Just as the nurse was entering the room, the patient who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure. Which of the following must the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ease the patient to the floor. This is the first step because it helps prevent injury during a seizure. Lowering the patient to the floor prevents falls and protects the patient's head. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B can cause injury or obstruct the airway, choice C involves unnecessary movement, and choice D can lead to further harm or injury. It is crucial to prioritize safety and prevent harm during a seizure episode.
Question 8 of 9
Antihistamines are used cautiously in older men with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the ff reasons?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding. Antihistamines can worsen urinary symptoms in men with prostatic hypertrophy by causing urinary retention. This is due to the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines, which can lead to decreased bladder contraction and difficulty in voiding. Increased drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of antihistamines but is not specific to older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice C, greater risk of cardiac arrest, is not directly related to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice D, lower autoimmune response in clients with AIDS, is unrelated to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy.
Question 9 of 9
An adult is to receive an IM injection of Morphine for post op pain. Which of the following is necessary for the nurse to assess prior to giving a narcotic analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Before administering a narcotic analgesic like Morphine, assessing the client's level of alertness and respiratory rate is crucial to ensure they can tolerate the medication without compromising their breathing. Alertness indicates their ability to handle potential side effects, while respiratory rate is vital to monitor for any signs of respiratory depression. Choice B (last meal) is not directly related to giving a narcotic analgesic, although it may impact the absorption rate. Choice C (bowel habits) and last bowel movement are not immediately relevant to assessing the client's readiness for a narcotic analgesic. Choice D (history of addictions) is important but not the priority when assessing for immediate safety and efficacy of the medication.