When caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery (PA) pressure catheter, the nurse observes that the PA waveform indicates that the catheter is in the wedged position. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the health care provider. When the PA waveform indicates the catheter is in the wedged position, it means the catheter tip is in the pulmonary artery, potentially causing complications. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess and reposition the catheter to prevent further issues. Zero balancing the transducer (A) or activating the fast flush system (B) are not appropriate actions for this situation. Deflating and reinflating the PA balloon (D) could exacerbate the issue and should only be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodialysis combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques. Ultrafiltration removes excess fluid, convection helps in removing solutes, and dialysis involves the diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This comprehensive approach ensures effective removal of both fluid and solutes in critically ill patients. Incorrect Answer Analysis: A: Removing fluids and solutes through convection alone is not the complete process in continuous venovenous hemodialysis. B: While volume overload is addressed, continuous venovenous hemodialysis involves more than just removing plasma water. C: Adding dialysate is not the primary method in continuous venovenous hemodialysis; it involves ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deal with issues and not personalities. This guideline is important because it focuses on resolving the conflict based on the actual problem at hand, rather than personal biases or emotions. By addressing the issues causing the argument, the nurse can help the UAPs find a fair and logical solution. A: Requiring the UAPs to reach a compromise may not address the root cause of the conflict and could lead to further disagreements. B: Weighing the consequences is important but may not be as effective in resolving the conflict as directly addressing the issues. C: Encouraging humor may temporarily diffuse the situation but may not lead to a lasting resolution.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing the patient's level of pain. In this situation, the patient's tachycardia, hypertension, and increased respiratory rate could be indicative of pain. By assessing the patient's pain level, the nurse can address any discomfort the patient may be experiencing, which could be contributing to these physiological responses. Summary of other choices: B: Decreasing the SIMV rate on the ventilator - This is not the priority intervention as the patient's symptoms are more likely related to pain rather than the ventilator settings. C: Providing sedation as ordered - Sedation is not the priority in this case as the patient has been tolerating the ventilator well without requiring sedation. D: Suctioning the patient again - Since the airway has been recently cleared, suctioning again is not necessary at this point and would not address the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates effective handoff communication by involving key stakeholders (nephrology consultant physician), requesting specific patient updates, and collaborating on patient care tasks (placing a central line). This scenario promotes continuity of care and ensures important information is shared. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: High noise level disrupts communication and can lead to errors or omissions in handoff information. C: While using a standardized checklist can be beneficial, it alone does not guarantee effective communication if not utilized properly or if key information is missed. D: Conducting reports at the patient's bedside is beneficial for patient involvement but may not address the need for involving relevant healthcare providers like the consultant physician in the handoff process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because palliative care indeed focuses on providing relief from pain and other symptoms, enhancing quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. This aligns with the essence of palliative care, which is to provide holistic support to improve comfort and well-being. The other choices are incorrect: B is wrong because palliative care does not aim to cure the underlying disease but rather to alleviate suffering; C is incorrect as palliative care can be initiated earlier in the disease trajectory, not just during the final days; and D is inaccurate because patients can continue receiving treatments alongside palliative care to manage symptoms and improve their quality of life.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: True collaboration. In this scenario, the physician consults with the nurse to understand the situation and collaborates on the best course of action for the patient's care. This demonstrates effective teamwork, communication, and mutual respect between healthcare professionals, which are key components of a healthy work environment. Choice A (Skilled communication) is not the best answer because while communication between the physician and nurse is important, the focus in this scenario is more on collaboration and teamwork. Choice B (Appropriate staffing) is not the best answer as the scenario does not specifically address staffing levels but rather the interaction and collaboration between the physician and nurse. Choice D (Recognizing signs of imminent stroke and paging the physician) is incorrect as it is unrelated to the scenario described, which is about the physician and nurse collaborating on patient care.