ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because performing hand hygiene before and after client contact is crucial in preventing the spread of infection in pneumonia. This intervention helps in reducing the transmission of infectious agents from one client to another and from surfaces to clients. It is a fundamental infection control measure that minimizes the risk of spreading pathogens. Option A is important for treating the infection but does not directly prevent its spread. Option B is a good practice to contain respiratory secretions but may not be as effective as hand hygiene. Option C isolates the client but does not address the primary mode of transmission through contaminated hands.
Question 2 of 5
A client with tuberculosis (TB) is taking isoniazid (INH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Isoniazid (INH) can cause liver toxicity. Step 2: Regular liver function tests help monitor for liver damage. Step 3: Monitoring liver function is crucial to prevent serious complications. Step 4: Other choices are not directly related to INH's side effects. Summary: Choice D is correct as it directly addresses a potential serious side effect of INH. Choices A, B, and C are not directly relevant to the medication's side effects.
Question 3 of 5
A client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Weight-bearing exercises help improve bone density and strength, crucial in managing osteoporosis. Step 2: Regular engagement in weight-bearing exercises can reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Step 3: Increasing intake of caffeinated beverages can contribute to bone loss. Step 4: Avoiding exposure to sunlight can decrease vitamin D levels necessary for calcium absorption. Step 5: Taking calcium supplements with iron may interfere with calcium absorption. Summary: Choice B is correct as weight-bearing exercises are essential for managing osteoporosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they can have negative impacts on bone health.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision. What action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to check the client's blood pressure first. A sudden onset of pounding headache and blurred vision in a client with a spinal cord injury at T6 can indicate autonomic dysreflexia. Checking the blood pressure is crucial as autonomic dysreflexia can lead to severe hypertension, which can result in life-threatening complications such as stroke or seizure. Immediate assessment and intervention are necessary to prevent further harm. Administering pain medication without addressing the underlying cause can exacerbate hypertension. Placing the client in a supine position can worsen symptoms, and increasing fluid intake does not address the immediate issue at hand. Therefore, checking the blood pressure is the priority to identify and manage autonomic dysreflexia effectively.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Left-sided heart failure leads to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing crackles on auscultation. This indicates pulmonary congestion. Peripheral edema (A) is more common in right-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention (B) is typically seen in right-sided heart failure due to increased venous pressure. Hepatomegaly (C) is more common in conditions like liver disease, not specifically left-sided heart failure.