ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH (antidiuretic hormone), leading to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps retain water by reducing urine output. Administering vasopressin helps manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. B: Regular insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used to increase urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. D: 10% dextrose is a form of glucose and is not indicated in the treatment of diabetes insipidus.
Question 2 of 9
A 23 y.o. woman is seen at an outpatient clinic for a routine Pap smear. When questioned, she states she is deciding whether to engage in sexual activity with a man she is just getting to know. She asks how she can tell if he has an STD. Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD. Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms. Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs. Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is evaluating whether a patient’s turning schedule was effective in preventing the formation of pressure ulcers. Which finding indicates success of the turning schedule?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the absence of skin breakdown indicates that the turning schedule was effective in preventing pressure ulcers. Skin breakdown is a key indicator of pressure ulcer development, so its absence suggests that the patient's skin integrity was maintained. Choice A is incorrect because documentation alone does not guarantee successful prevention. Choice B is incorrect as redness on the heels can still indicate the early stages of pressure ulcers. Choice C is unrelated to skin integrity and pressure ulcer prevention.
Question 4 of 9
After assessment of a client in an ambulatory clinic, the nurse records the data on the computer. The nurse recognizes which of the following as objective data?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because auscultation of the lungs involves direct observation and measurement, making it objective data. This data is based on what the nurse hears through the stethoscope, which can be verified and measured. Choices B, C, and D involve subjective experiences or interpretations that cannot be directly observed or measured. Complaint of nausea, sensation of burning, and belief in demons are all based on the client's feelings, perceptions, or beliefs, which are subjective and can vary from person to person. Objective data is factual, measurable, and observable, making choice A the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, "Fluid volume deficit R/T uncontrolled vomiting." This option correctly identifies the cause of the fluid volume deficit as uncontrolled vomiting, which is a common reason for fluid loss. The nursing diagnosis should always reflect the underlying cause of the issue. A is incorrect as "furrow tongue" is not a recognized medical term related to fluid volume deficit. C is incorrect because dehydration is not typically related to subnormal body temperature unless it is severe. D is incorrect as incessant vomiting is more specific to the cause, but the term "dehydration" should be used instead of "fluid volume deficit" in this context. In summary, option B is the appropriate nursing diagnosis as it accurately links the fluid volume deficit to the cause of uncontrolled vomiting.
Question 7 of 9
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Question 8 of 9
Mrs. Adams is scheduled for an intravemous pyelogram (IVP). Nurse Aura wpould be most concerned if the patient makes which of the following comments or statements?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking a laxative like Senokot can affect the results of an IVP by altering bowel motility and potentially causing inaccurate imaging. Choice B is related to bladder sensation, which is not directly relevant to an IVP. Choice C indicates a possible allergic reaction to mussels, which is unrelated to the procedure. Choice D mentions headaches, which are also not directly linked to an IVP. In summary, only choice A directly impacts the accuracy of the IVP results, making it the most concerning statement for Nurse Aura.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse evaluates a client’s response to a nursing intervention and determines that the expected outcome was not achieved. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reassess the client's condition. When an expected outcome is not achieved, the nurse must reassess the client's condition to identify the reasons for the lack of success. This step allows the nurse to gather more information, adjust the plan of care if necessary, and determine the most suitable course of action to help the client achieve the desired outcome. Choice A: Terminating the plan of care is premature without reassessing the client's condition and identifying potential barriers to success. Choice B: Modifying the plan of care may be necessary after reassessment but should not be the first step. Choice C: Reassigning care to another nurse does not address the underlying issues affecting the client's response to the intervention.