Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

When can a donor and recipient of blood be considered compatible?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because compatibility between blood donor and recipient is determined by the absence of clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed. Clumping indicates an incompatible blood type reaction, leading to potential harm. Blood clots (option B) are not indicative of compatibility but rather a sign of coagulation issues. Blood color change (option A) and blood drop sinking in water (option D) are not reliable indicators of blood compatibility. In summary, option C is correct as it directly assesses for the absence of a harmful reaction, while the other choices do not accurately determine blood compatibility.

Question 2 of 5

Laboratory studies indicate a client’s blood pressure level is 185mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most occlusive diagnostic information about the client’s glucose utilization?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A 6-hour glucose tolerance test. This test involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals after consuming a glucose solution, providing a comprehensive assessment of glucose utilization over time. This test is particularly useful in evaluating how the body processes glucose after a meal and can help diagnose conditions such as diabetes. A: A fasting blood glucose test would not provide a comprehensive picture of glucose utilization over time since it only measures glucose levels in a fasted state. B: A test of serum glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months but does not directly assess glucose utilization after a meal. D: A test for urine ketones is used to detect ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis but does not directly measure glucose utilization.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The waiting area with the television turned off. This setting provides a quiet environment, minimizing distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. It allows the nurse to communicate effectively by speaking clearly and facing the patient directly. Option A is incorrect because a closed door may not be enough to reduce background noise. Option C is incorrect as pain medication may affect the patient's ability to concentrate. Option D is incorrect because the occupational therapist working on leg exercises may create additional noise and distractions.

Question 4 of 5

A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, the nurse should assign highest priority to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintaining a patent airway. This is the highest priority because the client with esophageal cancer is at risk for airway obstruction due to difficulty swallowing. Maintaining a patent airway ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation, which are vital for the client's survival. Without a clear airway, the client may experience respiratory distress or failure. Body image, preventing injury, and ensuring adequate nutrition are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over maintaining a patent airway in this situation.

Question 5 of 5

At the present time, the best treatment for cancer is complete __________ before metastasis occurs:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment. Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.

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