ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When assisting with the placement of a pulmonary artery (PA) catheter, the nurse notes that the catheter is correctly placed when the monitor shows a:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for Answer D being correct: 1. PA catheter measures PA pressures. 2. PAWP reflects left atrial pressure. 3. Correct placement shows typical PAWP tracing. 4. PA pressure waveform (A) is not specific to PAWP. 5. Systemic arterial pressure tracing (B) is unrelated. 6. Systemic vascular resistance tracing (C) is not monitored by PA catheter.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management. Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient’s parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent. Brain death is defined as the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem. The absence of breathing and certain reflexes, such as no response to painful stimuli or no pupillary response to light, are key indicators of brain death. This definition is crucial for determining eligibility for organ donation. Incorrect choices: A: Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive. Flaccidity and unresponsiveness are not specific criteria for diagnosing brain death. B: If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function. The absence of a heartbeat alone does not indicate brain death. D: If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present. Respiratory cessation and the absence of pulse are not definitive signs of brain death.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue. Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient’s lungs. Rhabdomyolysis can lead to acute kidney injury due to myoglobin release from damaged muscle cells. IV fluids and mannitol are given to prevent kidney damage by promoting myoglobin excretion. Assessing the patient’s lungs is crucial to monitor for potential complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which can occur as a result of rhabdomyolysis. This assessment helps to ensure early detection and prompt intervention if respiratory issues arise. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Assess the patient’s hearing - This is not directly related to rhabdomyolysis or its treatment. C: Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered - Decreasing IV fluids can exacerbate kidney injury in rhabdomyolysis. D: Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents - Mannitol is not routinely given before radiological contrast agents in the context of rhabdomyolysis management.
Question 6 of 9
The family members of a patient who has just been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with multiple traumatic injuries have just arrived in the ICU waiting room. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Explain ICU visitation policies and encourage family visits. This is the best course of action because it prioritizes the needs of the family members by providing them with information on visitation policies and encouraging them to visit the patient. This helps establish communication, support, and involvement in the patient's care. It also respects the family's emotional needs during a challenging time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Immediately taking the family members to the patient's bedside may overwhelm them and disrupt the patient's care. C: Describing the patient's injuries and care being provided should be done in a more controlled environment to ensure the family's understanding and emotional readiness. D: Inviting the family to a multidisciplinary care conference may be premature without first addressing their immediate concerns and providing support.
Question 7 of 9
As part of the Synergy Model, the nurse has identified a patient characteristic of resiliency. What patient behavior demonstrates resiliency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because developing a list of questions for the physician shows active engagement in their healthcare, seeking information, and taking control of their situation, which are characteristics of resiliency. This behavior indicates the patient's willingness to understand and cope with their health condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they demonstrate maladaptive coping mechanisms such as dysfunctional grieving, denial, and blame assignment, which are not indicative of resiliency. Resiliency involves adaptability, problem-solving, and seeking support, which are better exemplified by choice B.
Question 8 of 9
Family members have a need for information. Which intervention best assists in meeting this need?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because providing a daily update of the patient's progress and facilitating communication with the intensivist directly addresses the family members' need for information in a timely and personalized manner. This intervention ensures that the family is kept informed about the patient's condition and treatment plan, fostering transparency and trust. It also allows for any questions or concerns to be addressed promptly, aiding in the family's understanding and involvement in the patient's care. Now, let's summarize why the other choices are incorrect: A: Handing out a pamphlet may provide information, but it lacks the personalized touch and real-time updates that are crucial for meeting the family's need for information. C: Restricting information and only allowing family members to be present at specific times may create frustration and hinder communication, not effectively meeting their information needs. D: Providing a list of medications is helpful, but it does not offer a comprehensive update on the patient's progress or facilitate direct communication with the medical team, which are
Question 9 of 9
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous re spirations are 12 breaths/min. The patient receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and now respi rations decrease to 4 breaths/min. What adjustments may need to be made to the patient’s ve ntilator settings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern. A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.