When assessing a prenatal client at follow-up prenatal visits during the second trimester, the nurse should anticipate which assessments to be performed at each visit? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight, height, BMI. During each second-trimester prenatal visit, it is essential to monitor the client's weight, height, and BMI to ensure appropriate maternal and fetal health. Weight gain is a crucial indicator of fetal growth and maternal well-being. Height and BMI can provide insights into the client's nutritional status and overall health. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Cervical examination is typically not performed routinely during second-trimester prenatal visits unless there are specific concerns such as preterm labor risk. C: Fetal ultrasound is usually scheduled at specific times during pregnancy, not necessarily at every second-trimester visit. D: Fundal height measurement is important, but it is usually performed starting in the second trimester to assess fetal growth and position, not necessarily at every visit.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. To test for the presence of ballottement, the nurse should initiate a gentle upward tap on the cervix. Ballottement is a technique used in obstetrics to assess for the presence of a floating object in the uterus, such as a fetus. By tapping the cervix gently, the nurse can feel for a rebound effect, indicating the presence of a floating object. This technique helps to confirm the presence of a fetus in the uterus. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Palpating the uterus for contractions is not relevant to testing for ballottement. B: Assessing the skin for increased pigmentation is not related to assessing for the presence of a floating object in the uterus. D: Palpating the abdomen for fetal outline does not specifically test for ballottement, which involves tapping the cervix.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Multipara. This term refers to a woman who has given birth to two or more children. In this case, the client has one child already, making her a multipara. A: Primipara refers to a woman who has given birth to one child, which does not match the client's birth history. B: Primigravida refers to a woman who is pregnant for the first time, which also does not match the client's history. C: Nulligravida refers to a woman who has never been pregnant, which is not the case for the client. Therefore, the correct term to describe the client's birth history is Multipara, as she has one child and is currently 8 weeks gestation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 41-year-old. Advanced maternal age increases the risk of labor dystocia due to reduced uterine muscle tone and coordination. Older individuals are more likely to experience prolonged labor or difficulty with fetal descent. Choice A (38-week gestation) is not a risk factor for labor dystocia. Prenatal anemia (Choice C) may lead to complications during pregnancy but is not directly linked to labor dystocia. Lack of prenatal care (Choice D) can increase the risk of complications but is not a specific risk factor for labor dystocia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: misoprostol. Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening in obstetrics due to its ability to soften and dilate the cervix, making it favorable for induction of labor. It is a prostaglandin E1 analogue that helps prepare the cervix for childbirth. Amniotomy (A) is the artificial rupture of membranes and does not directly aid in cervical ripening. Hemabate (B) is a medication used to treat postpartum hemorrhage, not for cervical ripening. Progesterone (D) is a hormone that helps maintain pregnancy and is not used for cervical ripening.