ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
When assessing a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hemoglobin (Hgb) level. Pallor of the skin and nail beds indicates possible anemia, which is a decrease in red blood cells or hemoglobin. Checking the hemoglobin level will confirm if the patient is anemic. Platelet count (A) assesses for clotting ability, not anemia. Neutrophil count (B) and White blood cell count (C) are indicators of infection or inflammation, not anemia. Therefore, ensuring the hemoglobin level has been ordered is crucial for assessing the patient's pallor.
Question 2 of 5
An 8-year-old boy undergoes a resection of a tumor in the right cerebrum next to the lateral ventricle (supratentorial). The pathologist feels the histology is most consistent with an ependymoma. The tumor is sent for advanced molecular and genetic testing. Which of the following findings would further support a diagnosis of ependymoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: RELA fusion. Ependymomas are known to have specific genetic alterations, including RELA fusions. The fusion of RELA gene is a hallmark genetic abnormality observed in certain subtypes of ependymomas, aiding in the diagnosis. Conversely, choices A, B, and D are associated with other types of brain tumors such as pilocytic astrocytoma (A), melanoma (B), and diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (D), respectively. These genetic alterations are not characteristic of ependymomas, making them incorrect choices in this context.
Question 3 of 5
A 13-year-old Hispanic girl is found to have a WBC count of 6,500/mm3 with 40% Auer rod–containing granular blasts that, by flow cytometry, express very bright CD33 but are negative for human leukocyte antigen–DR isotype (HLA-DR). She is oozing blood around her peripheral IV site. Coagulation studies reveal an international normalized ratio (INR) of 3.4, a fibrinogen of 170, and a markedly elevated D-dimer. Marrow aspirate shows nearly 90% blasts with a similar morphology. You send the marrow to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) lab and request STAT testing for the most likely recurrent genetic abnormality based on the clinical presentation. How do you plan to initiate therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Begin therapy with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support. The patient's presentation is consistent with acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), indicated by the presence of Auer rod-containing blasts, very bright CD33 expression, and coagulopathy (elevated INR, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer). APL is associated with a specific genetic abnormality involving the PML-RARA fusion gene. ATRA is the mainstay of induction therapy for APL as it induces differentiation of leukemic promyelocytes. Aggressive management of coagulopathy is crucial to prevent life-threatening bleeding complications. Incorrect answers: A: Performing a lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage as the patient's symptoms and laboratory findings point towards APL, not central nervous system involvement. C: Dexamethasone and hydroxyurea are not
Question 4 of 5
You are seeing a 12-year-old boy in the survivorship program who presented at 2 years old with a desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma. You note the child recently underwent germline genetic testing and was found to have nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. In which gene is the child most likely to have a pathogenic variant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome is also known as Gorlin syndrome, caused by mutations in SUFU. 2. SUFU gene regulates the Hedgehog signaling pathway, implicated in medulloblastoma development. 3. Desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma is commonly seen in Gorlin syndrome. 4. PTEN is associated with Cowden syndrome, CDKN2A with melanoma, and SMARCB1 with rhabdoid tumors, not typically seen in Gorlin syndrome.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is scheduled for upcoming surgery. He is on nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for rheumatoid arthritis. You are being asked what to do with his medications for the surgery. What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1. NSAIDs work by reversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, particularly COX-1 and COX-2, which are involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins. In this case, reversible inhibition is crucial because it allows for the temporary suppression of prostaglandin production, leading to pain relief and anti-inflammatory effects. Explanation of other choices: A: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1 - This is incorrect because NSAIDs typically do not irreversibly inhibit COX-1. B: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 - This is incorrect because NSAIDs do not irreversibly inhibit COX-2. D: Reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 - This is incorrect because while NSAIDs can inhibit COX-2, the primary target is COX-1 for their therapeutic effects.