When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, levothyroxine is classified as a thyroid preparation, which is the correct answer (A). Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4) and is used to replace or supplement the natural thyroid hormones in cases of hypothyroidism or other thyroid disorders. Option B) Metabolic Inhibitors is incorrect because levothyroxine does not inhibit metabolism; instead, it actually helps to regulate metabolism by supplementing thyroid hormones. Option C) Analgesic is incorrect because levothyroxine is not used for pain relief; its primary function is to regulate thyroid hormone levels. Option D) Loop Diuretic is incorrect because loop diuretics are a completely different class of medications used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension by increasing urine production through effects on the kidneys, unrelated to thyroid function. Understanding levothyroxine's pharmacologic classification is crucial for healthcare professionals to appropriately prescribe and monitor its use in patients with thyroid disorders. This knowledge ensures safe and effective medication management, emphasizing the importance of accurate drug classification in pharmacology education and clinical practice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding antidotes is crucial for patient safety. The correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors. Protamine sulfate is a positively charged molecule that binds to the negatively charged heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Option B, Narcan, is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not for Heparin. Option C, Romazicon, is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, not for Heparin. Option D, Naloxone, is also used for opioid overdose reversal, not for Heparin toxicity. Educationally, understanding antidotes is essential for nursing and medical students to provide safe and effective patient care. Knowing the specific antidotes for different medications can prevent adverse drug reactions and save lives in emergency situations. Remembering the antidote for Heparin, Protamine sulfate, is critical in clinical practice to manage and reverse its anticoagulant effects effectively.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Regular insulin typically peaks within 1 to 5 hours after administration. This peak time corresponds to the time when the insulin is exerting its maximum effect on lowering blood glucose levels. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that is used to manage blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. Option A (30 minutes to 2 ½ hours) is incorrect because this timeframe is too early for the peak action of regular insulin. Option B (1 to 3 hours) is also incorrect as it does not encompass the full peak range of regular insulin. Option C (6 to 14 hours) is incorrect as this timeframe is more indicative of long-acting insulins rather than regular insulin. In an educational context, understanding the peak action of insulin is crucial for healthcare professionals managing patients with diabetes. By knowing when regular insulin peaks, healthcare providers can better time insulin administration in relation to meals to achieve optimal blood glucose control. This knowledge also helps in preventing hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia episodes in patients on insulin therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker used in the treatment of various conditions like hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. The correct answer is D, which states that propranolol blocks stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By blocking beta1 receptors in the heart, propranolol reduces heart rate and contractility, leading to decreased cardiac output. Blocking beta2 receptors in the lungs can result in bronchoconstriction, which is a potential side effect with non-selective beta blockers. Option A, which states that propranolol blocks stimulation of beta1 receptors only, is incorrect as propranolol affects both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Option B is incorrect because propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine. Option C is also incorrect as propranolol blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors, not just beta2. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological actions of medications like propranolol is crucial for nursing students and healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowing the specific receptor interactions helps in predicting potential side effects and understanding the rationale behind using the medication in different clinical scenarios.