ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
When administering the anticoagulant drug Warfarin, what is one of the two lab tests you should monitor to distinguish the effectiveness of the drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When administering the anticoagulant drug Warfarin, one of the two lab tests you should monitor to distinguish the effectiveness of the drug is the International Normalized Ratio (INR). INR measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor the effects of Warfarin therapy. The target INR range for patients on Warfarin therapy varies depending on the indication for treatment, but in general, a higher INR indicates that the blood is taking longer to clot, which means the Warfarin is working effectively to prevent blood clots. Regular monitoring of the INR levels is essential to ensure that patients are receiving an appropriate dose of Warfarin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with schizophrenia. The patients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conventional antipsychotics like haloperidol have anticholinergic effects, including dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. Urinary retention is a medical emergency if severe, risking bladder damage or infection, requiring immediate physician reporting. Acute dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect, not anticholinergic, though urgent. Severe headache could indicate various issues but isn't a typical anticholinergic effect. Hypertension isn't directly linked to anticholinergic action (hypotension is more common). The nurse prioritizes urinary retention due to its potential for rapid complications, aligning with anticholinergic pharmacology, making choice D the most critical to report.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse administers atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with hypertension. Which finding would prompt the nurse to hold the dose and notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, lowers blood pressure and heart rate by blocking sympathetic stimulation. A heart rate of 52 bpm is bradycardic (below 60 bpm), a threshold for holding beta-blockers due to risk of inadequate perfusion, especially in hypertension where cardiac output matters. Holding and notifying the physician prevents harm, allowing reassessment. BP of 130/80 is controlled, not urgent. Respiratory rate of 18 and temperature of 98.6°F are normal. Atenolol's selectivity for beta-1 receptors makes bradycardia a key adverse effect, requiring vigilance. This action aligns with nursing protocols for beta-blockers, prioritizing cardiovascular stability, making B the finding warranting immediate intervention.
Question 4 of 9
A patient taking SMZ/TMP asks the nurse what the name means. The nurse replies sulfamethoxazole is combined with trimethoprim in SMZ/TMP to help the drug effectiveness. How does this work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SMZ/TMP (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim) works synergistically to inhibit bacterial folate synthesis at two different steps, making it effective against a broad spectrum of gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. It does not act as an anesthetic (A), displace trimethoprim (B), or increase excretion in the bladder (C). The combination enhances antibacterial activity and reduces the risk of resistance.
Question 5 of 9
A 42-year-old woman with a 1-year history of rheumatoid arthritis comes to see her primary care physician complaining of worsening symptoms. She has been taking leflunomide. IL-1 and TNF-α are two key cytokines involved in the negative sequelae of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following drugs is a recombinant form of an endogenous IL-1 antagonist?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RA involves IL-1 and TNF-α driving inflammation. The question seeks a recombinant IL-1 antagonist. Abatacept inhibits T-cell costimulation, not IL-1. Anakinra , a recombinant IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1Ra), blocks IL-1 signaling, matching the description. Methotrexate slows cell proliferation, not an IL-1 antagonist. Hydroxychloroquine modulates immunity differently. Rituximab (E) targets B cells. Anakinra mimics natural IL-1Ra, reducing joint damage in RA when leflunomide fails, directly countering IL-1's effects, unlike broader or unrelated mechanisms of other options.
Question 6 of 9
If you are treating a patient that has renal failure, what type of pain medications should you avoid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with renal failure, NSAIDs (Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) should be avoided as they can further impair kidney function and potentially cause kidney damage. NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury and worsen existing renal conditions by affecting prostaglandin synthesis in the kidneys, leading to decreased renal blood flow. It is essential to choose pain medications that do not rely on the kidneys for metabolism or excretion, such as nonopioid analgesics or certain types of opioids that are safe for use in renal impairment. It is advisable to consult with a healthcare provider for proper pain management in patients with renal failure.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse enters a patient’s room to find that his heart rate is 120, his blood pressure is 70/50, and he has red blotching of his face and neck. Vancomycin is running intravenous piggyback. The nurse believes that this patient is experiencing a severe adverse effect called red man syndrome. What action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction to vancomycin, characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. The nurse should immediately stop the infusion to prevent further reaction and call the health care provider for further instructions. Reducing the infusion rate may help in mild cases, but in this severe case, stopping the infusion is the priority. Encouraging fluids is not appropriate for managing this acute reaction. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a different, more severe condition and is not indicated by these symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
A patient was prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the treatment of depression and anxiety. The patient's spouse calls the clinic and reports the patient is increasingly moody and seems 'disconnected with life.' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sertraline carries a suicide risk warning, especially early on. Moodiness and disconnection suggest potential ideation, requiring urgent clinic assessment for safety. Diphenhydramine masks symptoms. Holding medication risks withdrawal. Doubling the dose could worsen effects. B ensures immediate evaluation, making it the best response.
Question 9 of 9
What is the therapeutic use of metformin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is commonly used in the treatment of Type 2 diabetes. It works by helping to control blood sugar levels by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity in the muscles. Therefore, the therapeutic use of metformin is in the maintenance of a person's blood glucose levels. While metformin can sometimes be associated with minor effects like gastrointestinal disturbances, it is not used to increase heart rate or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.