ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
When administering the anticoagulant drug Warfarin, what is one of the two lab tests you should monitor to distinguish the effectiveness of the drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When administering the anticoagulant drug Warfarin, one of the two lab tests you should monitor to distinguish the effectiveness of the drug is the International Normalized Ratio (INR). INR measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor the effects of Warfarin therapy. The target INR range for patients on Warfarin therapy varies depending on the indication for treatment, but in general, a higher INR indicates that the blood is taking longer to clot, which means the Warfarin is working effectively to prevent blood clots. Regular monitoring of the INR levels is essential to ensure that patients are receiving an appropriate dose of Warfarin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.
Question 2 of 5
This describes the relationship of the blood concentration attained with initial dosing and the dose of drug given:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The volume of distribution (Vd) is a pharmacokinetic parameter that describes the relationship of the blood concentration attained with initial dosing and the dose of drug given. It is a theoretical volume that indicates the extent of drug distribution in the body relative to its concentration in the bloodstream. A high volume of distribution suggests that the drug is extensively distributed throughout the tissues of the body, while a low volume of distribution indicates that the drug is largely confined to the bloodstream. Therefore, Vd is the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse enters a patient’s room to find that his heart rate is 120, his blood pressure is 70/50, and he has red blotching of his face and neck. Vancomycin is running intravenous piggyback. The nurse believes that this patient is experiencing a severe adverse effect called red man syndrome. What action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction to vancomycin, characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. The nurse should immediately stop the infusion to prevent further reaction and call the health care provider for further instructions. Reducing the infusion rate may help in mild cases, but in this severe case, stopping the infusion is the priority. Encouraging fluids is not appropriate for managing this acute reaction. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a different, more severe condition and is not indicated by these symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a well-known stage actor who has suddenly developed severe stage fright that is preventing him from working. What drug does the nurse suspect will be prescribed for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: One of the indications for use of propranolol is prevention of stage fright, which is a sympathetic stress reaction to a particular situation. None of the other options are indicated for this use. The nurse should understand the indications for propranolol to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 5 of 5
A patient taking SMZ/TMP asks the nurse what the name means. The nurse replies sulfamethoxazole is combined with trimethoprim in SMZ/TMP to help the drug effectiveness. How does this work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SMZ/TMP (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim) works synergistically to inhibit bacterial folate synthesis at two different steps, making it effective against a broad spectrum of gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. It does not act as an anesthetic (A), displace trimethoprim (B), or increase excretion in the bladder (C). The combination enhances antibacterial activity and reduces the risk of resistance.