ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When administering oxygen to a client, under which of the ff situations should the nurse discontinue the administration and notify the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the client is in a state of respiratory arrest, immediate medical intervention is required. Discontinuing oxygen administration and notifying the physician is crucial to address the life-threatening situation. A: Improving color is a positive sign. B: Decreased consciousness may indicate a need for further assessment but does not require immediate discontinuation of oxygen. D: Inability to use the diaphragm may require intervention but does not indicate an immediate threat as respiratory arrest does.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff adverse reactions may occur when a client is taking danazol (Danocrine) for fibrocystic breast disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Danazol is a synthetic steroid used to treat fibrocystic breast disease by suppressing ovulation and hormonal fluctuations. This leads to a decrease in menstrual bleeding, resulting in amenorrhea. Nausea and confusion are not common adverse reactions of danazol. Hypotension is also not associated with danazol use. In summary, amenorrhea is the expected side effect due to the drug's mechanism of action, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse practitioner assesses a client in the physician’s office. Which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the assessment findings of pericarditis, photosensitivity, polyarthralgia, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are classic manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Pericarditis can present as chest pain aggravated by deep breathing or lying flat, photosensitivity refers to skin rashes triggered by sunlight exposure, polyarthralgia involves joint pain in multiple joints, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are common in the mouth or nose. These findings align with the diagnostic criteria for SLE. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical presentation of SLE. Choice A includes facial erythema which is a common symptom, but the presence of profuse proteinuria, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss are not specific to SLE. Choices C and D include symptoms like weight gain, hypothermia, and edema which are not characteristic of SLE. In summary
Question 4 of 9
Of the following types of nursing diagnoses, which one is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actual nursing diagnosis. An actual nursing diagnosis is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics, such as signs and symptoms exhibited by the patient. This helps in identifying the specific health issues that the patient is currently experiencing. In contrast, a risk nursing diagnosis is focused on potential health problems that the patient may develop in the future. Possible nursing diagnosis involves uncertain or unclear health issues that require further assessment. Wellness diagnosis is aimed at enhancing health and promoting well-being, rather than addressing existing health problems. Therefore, the presence of major defining characteristics is crucial in confirming an actual nursing diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is assigned to a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When handling the client’s blood and body fluids, the nurse uses standard precautions, which include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Standard precautions include wearing gloves when there is a potential for contact with blood or body fluids. Emptying a bedpan involves contact with bodily fluids, thus gloves are necessary to prevent exposure to pathogens. Choice B is incorrect because wearing a gown and protective eyewear is not necessary for obtaining a urine specimen via catheterization unless there is a risk of splashing or spraying of fluids. Choice C is incorrect as needles should always be disposed of in a proper sharps container with the cap secured to prevent accidental needlestick injuries. Choice D is incorrect because applying eyedrops does not involve contact with blood or body fluids, so wearing gloves is not necessary according to standard precautions.
Question 6 of 9
The normal range of hemoglobin in the blood of an adult:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The normal range of hemoglobin in adult blood is typically between 12-18 g/dL. This range is the most common and widely accepted range based on clinical guidelines and research studies. Hemoglobin levels outside this range may indicate anemia or other health conditions. Choice A (7-11 mg) is too low for normal hemoglobin levels in adults and indicates severe anemia. Choice B (14-20 mg) is slightly higher and could be normal for some individuals, but generally, 12-18 g/dL is the standard range. Choice D (20-26 mg) is too high and may indicate dehydration or other medical conditions.
Question 7 of 9
A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia. In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.
Question 8 of 9
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Recognize cultural differences in communication styles. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect, humility, or shyness. Step 2: Understand that the patient's behavior may not indicate depression but rather a cultural norm. Step 3: Adjust communication approach by respecting the patient's cultural preferences. Step 4: Building trust and rapport by acknowledging and accommodating cultural differences. Summary: Choice A is correct as it acknowledges and respects cultural differences. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider cultural aspects and may lead to misinterpretation and inappropriate actions.
Question 9 of 9
For a patient who is being discharged on digoxin, the nurse should include which of the ff. in an explanation to the patient on the signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Halos around lights. Digoxin toxicity can cause visual disturbances like seeing halos around lights, which is a common symptom. This is due to its effect on the eyes. Poor appetite (choice A) is a common side effect but not specific to toxicity. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Tachycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, but visual disturbances like halos around lights are more specific and should be explained to the patient.