ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When administering oxygen to a client, under which of the ff situations should the nurse discontinue the administration and notify the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the client is in a state of respiratory arrest, immediate medical intervention is required. Discontinuing oxygen administration and notifying the physician is crucial to address the life-threatening situation. A: Improving color is a positive sign. B: Decreased consciousness may indicate a need for further assessment but does not require immediate discontinuation of oxygen. D: Inability to use the diaphragm may require intervention but does not indicate an immediate threat as respiratory arrest does.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with abnormal sodium losses is receiving a house diet. To provide 1,600mg sodium daily, the nurse could supplement the patient’s diet with:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because 1 beef cube contains about 1,000mg of sodium. To reach 1,600mg, the patient needs an additional 600mg. 12oz of tomato juice contains approximately 600mg of sodium, making it the right choice. A: Not enough sodium from the beef cube and tomato juice. B: Too much sodium from the 16oz of tomato juice. C: Too much sodium from the 4 beef cubes.
Question 3 of 9
When the nurse inspects a postoperative incision site for infection, which one of the following types of assessments is being performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused. When a nurse inspects a postoperative incision site for infection, they are conducting a focused assessment. This type of assessment is specific to a particular issue or body system, in this case, the incision site. By focusing solely on the incision site, the nurse can thoroughly evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge. A: Complete assessments involve a comprehensive evaluation of all body systems and are not necessary for this specific situation. C: General assessments are broad and not targeted towards a specific issue like infection at an incision site. D: Time-lapse assessments involve comparing current findings to previous assessments over a period of time, which is not relevant to immediately identifying signs of infection. In summary, the correct answer is focused because it allows for a detailed evaluation of the incision site specifically for signs of infection, unlike the other options that are either too broad or not relevant to the situation.
Question 4 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation and potentially respiratory failure. This is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine is not typically associated with morphine use. B: An irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within a normal range and not a common adverse effect of morphine. C: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its action on the central nervous system, not necessarily indicating an adverse effect.
Question 5 of 9
When caring for Mr. Reyes, the nurse should assess for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Altered level of consciousness, because it is a critical assessment in determining Mr. Reyes's neurological status and overall well-being. Assessing for altered level of consciousness helps identify potential neurological issues, such as brain injury or stroke, which require immediate intervention. A: Decreased carotid pulses - This is related to cardiovascular assessment, not specific to Mr. Reyes's neurological status. C: Bleeding from oral cavity - While important to assess for, it is not directly related to Mr. Reyes's neurological status. D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is a specific neurological assessment, but altered level of consciousness takes priority in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A nursing assessment for a patient with a spinal cord injury leads to several pertinent nursing diagnoses. Which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity. This is the highest priority as patients with spinal cord injuries are at high risk for pressure ulcers due to immobility. Preventing skin breakdown is crucial to avoid complications. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent. Choice B may be a concern but preventing skin breakdown takes precedence. Choices C and D are important but not life-threatening like potential skin issues in this patient population.
Question 7 of 9
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consider cultural differences during this assessment. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect and humility, especially when speaking to authority figures. By being aware of this cultural norm, the nurse can avoid misinterpreting the patient's behavior as a sign of depression or dishonesty. Asking the patient to make eye contact (choice B) may make the patient uncomfortable and disrupt the therapeutic relationship. Continuing with the interview and documenting depression (choice C) without considering cultural differences can lead to inaccurate assessment and inappropriate interventions. Notifying the health care provider for a psychological evaluation (choice D) is premature and unnecessary without first understanding the cultural context of the patient's behavior.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff adverse reactions may occur when a client is taking danazol (Danocrine) for fibrocystic breast disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Danazol is a synthetic steroid used to treat fibrocystic breast disease by suppressing ovulation and hormonal fluctuations. This leads to a decrease in menstrual bleeding, resulting in amenorrhea. Nausea and confusion are not common adverse reactions of danazol. Hypotension is also not associated with danazol use. In summary, amenorrhea is the expected side effect due to the drug's mechanism of action, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.
Question 9 of 9
A client who underwent litholapaxy surgery for removing bladder stones wants to know how long the urethral catheter needs to stay in place. Which of the ff is the correct response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The catheter should remain in place for 1-2 days. After litholapaxy surgery, the urethral catheter is typically removed within 1-2 days to prevent infection and promote healing. Keeping the catheter in place for too long can increase the risk of complications such as urinary tract infections. Options A, C, and D suggest longer durations which are not necessary and may lead to unnecessary discomfort and risks for the client. Therefore, the optimal timeframe for catheter removal post-litholapaxy surgery is within 1-2 days.