ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
When administering a standard or median effective dose to a patient, the nurse explains that this amount of drug will have which effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Median effective dose (ED50) affects 50% of a population, a statistical pharmacodynamic measure, not individual guarantee. No adverse effects isn't assured-safety varies. Metabolism timing depends on half-life, not ED50. Majority effectiveness exceeds 50%. Half the population defines ED50, explaining its intent.
Question 2 of 5
A 22-year-old woman ingests an entire bottle of acetaminophen in an attempted suicide. She unexpectedly feels well for the next 24 h, at which time her boyfriend discovers what she has done and takes her to the ER. The toxic metabolite of acetaminophen exerts its deleterious effect by what mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose initially presents asymptomatically, but its toxic metabolite, NAPQI, causes delayed harm. Option , depletion of endogenous antioxidants (glutathione), is correct-NAPQI, formed via CYP450 metabolism, overwhelms glutathione, leading to oxidative stress and hepatotoxicity. Option , hapten formation, occurs with some drugs but not acetaminophen's primary toxicity. Option , cytochrome C oxidase inhibition, is cyanide's mechanism, not acetaminophen's. Option , ischemia from reduced blood flow, isn't the issue-damage is metabolic. Option (E), gallbladder paralysis, is irrelevant. NAPQI's glutathione depletion disrupts detoxification, causing centrilobular necrosis, explaining the delayed presentation and justifying urgent treatment like N-acetylcysteine to replenish glutathione.
Question 3 of 5
A 33-year-old man with a history of chronic epididymoorchitis is treated with long-term tetracycline antibiotic therapy. During the 3 months of therapy, he develops discoloration of his teeth. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, nausea, and three episodes of bloody emesis. His mother is concerned because she saw him playing near the open medicine cabinet and her prenatal vitamins were opened. What is the most appropriate treatment for the child's overdose?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
A 57-year-old patient, living at home, has severe pain due to a metastatic carcinoma that is being managed with fentanyl, delivered transdermally from a patch. He should also be taking, or at least have on hand
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fentanyl, a potent opioid, effectively manages severe cancer pain via transdermal delivery, but constipation is a universal side effect due to mu receptor activation in the gut, reducing motility. Docusate, a stool softener, prevents and treats this by easing bowel movements, essential for patient comfort and compliance. Apomorphine, a dopamine agonist, treats Parkinson's off-periods, irrelevant here. Loperamide, an antidiarrheal, worsens constipation. Morphine duplicates fentanyl's action, unnecessary with a patch. Naloxone reverses overdose, useful in emergencies but not routine. Given fentanyl's chronic use, proactively managing constipation with docusate is critical, as it mitigates a predictable, distressing side effect without altering pain control.