When administering a blood transfusion to a client with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse monitors closely for evidence of a transfusion reaction. Shortly after the transfusion begins, the client complains of chest pain, nausea and itching. When urticarial, tachycardia, and hypotension develop, the nurse stops the transfusion and notifies the physician. The nurse suspects which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

When administering a blood transfusion to a client with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse monitors closely for evidence of a transfusion reaction. Shortly after the transfusion begins, the client complains of chest pain, nausea and itching. When urticarial, tachycardia, and hypotension develop, the nurse stops the transfusion and notifies the physician. The nurse suspects which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I (immediate, anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reaction. In this scenario, the client experiences symptoms shortly after the transfusion starts, such as chest pain, nausea, itching, urticaria, tachycardia, and hypotension, which are indicative of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction. Type I reactions involve the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils, leading to the symptoms described. The nurse's prompt action of stopping the transfusion and notifying the physician aligns with managing this type of reaction. Incorrect choices: B: Type II (cytolytic, cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reaction - This type of reaction involves antibodies targeting specific cells, leading to their destruction. The symptoms described in the scenario are not consistent with this type of reaction. C: Type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity reaction - This type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes that deposit in tissues, causing

Question 2 of 9

Which of the ff is the diagnostic sign for pericarditis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pericardial friction rub. This is a key diagnostic sign of pericarditis due to the inflammation of the pericardial layers causing a rough, grating sound heard upon auscultation. Precordial pain (A) is a common symptom but not a specific diagnostic sign. Hypotension (C) and rapid/labored respirations (D) are not typically associated with pericarditis. Therefore, the presence of a pericardial friction rub is crucial in confirming the diagnosis of pericarditis.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to the patient is the triad of symptoms associated with Meniere’s disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Meniere's disease is characterized by a triad of symptoms: recurrent episodes of vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, and tinnitus. Vertigo is a spinning sensation, hearing loss affects the inner ear, and tinnitus is ringing in the ear. Nausea, vomiting, pain, nystagmus, or headache are not typically part of the classic triad of Meniere's disease symptoms. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice based on the specific symptomatology associated with Meniere's disease.

Question 4 of 9

A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, NO, MO. What does this classification mean?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed. Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved. Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report. Summary: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option. D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.

Question 5 of 9

A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.

Question 6 of 9

The LPN is caring for a patient in the preoperative period who, even after verbalizing concerns and having questions answered, states, “I know I am not going to wake up after surgery.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inform the registered nurse. This is the best course of action as the LPN should escalate the situation to a higher level of care by involving the registered nurse who can further assess the patient's concerns and provide appropriate interventions. A. Reassuring the patient may not address the underlying fear and may not be sufficient to alleviate their anxiety. B. Providing statistics about surgery death rates may further escalate the patient's fears and anxiety, causing more harm than good. D. Involving the family to comfort the patient may not address the patient's specific concerns and may not be within the family's scope of understanding or expertise to effectively address the situation. Informing the registered nurse allows for a more comprehensive assessment and appropriate intervention to address the patient's fears and concerns in a holistic manner.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate

Question 8 of 9

Which action indicates the nurse is using a PICOT question to improve care for a patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because using a PICOT question involves formulating a research question to guide evidence-based practice. B indicates the nurse is implementing interventions based on scientific research, aligning with the PICOT framework (Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, Timeframe). This approach ensures that care decisions are supported by the best available evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because practicing nursing based on court evidence does not align with the PICOT framework. Choice C is incorrect as using standardized care plans for all patients may not consider individual patient needs and preferences as required in a PICOT question. Choice D is incorrect as planning care based on tradition does not involve integrating current research evidence as in the PICOT approach.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In acute Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone, leading to electrolyte imbalances. This results in increased potassium levels (hyperkalemia) due to lack of aldosterone to promote potassium excretion. Hypernatremia (choice B) is less likely as aldosterone deficiency leads to sodium loss. Reduced BUN (choice C) is unlikely as Addison's crisis does not directly affect urea levels. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is not typically seen in Addisonian crisis as cortisol deficiency usually results in hypoglycemia.

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