When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?

Questions 40

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.

Question 2 of 9

What is the cause of swelling during acute inflammation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Swelling during acute inflammation is primarily caused by the accumulation of fluid exudate in the affected tissues. This fluid exudate contains proteins and cells that leak from blood vessels due to increased vascular permeability. Collagenase (Choice A) is an enzyme that breaks down collagen and is not directly responsible for swelling. Lymphocytic margination (Choice C) is the process where white blood cells line up along the blood vessel walls, which does not directly cause swelling. Anaerobic glycolysis (Choice D) is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is not related to the mechanism of swelling in acute inflammation.

Question 3 of 9

What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

Question 4 of 9

A 45-year-old woman has been prescribed conjugated estrogens (Premarin) for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid smoking while taking this medication' because patients taking conjugated estrogens should avoid smoking due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration is a good practice but not specifically related to conjugated estrogens. Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to the medication. Taking the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia is not a specific teaching point for conjugated estrogens.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with a history of breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur.

Question 6 of 9

After experiencing several months of worsening nocturia, a patient has been assessed for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and has begun drug treatment. In addition to nocturia, what other sign or symptom is most likely to accompany BPH?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hematuria. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is a common sign associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). It can occur due to irritation or damage to the prostate tissue. While urinary frequency and erectile dysfunction can also be seen in BPH patients, hematuria is more specifically linked to prostate issues. Flank pain is not typically a direct symptom of BPH.

Question 7 of 9

When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hypersensitivity is correctly defined as an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen. This response leads to tissue damage or other clinical manifestations. Choice A is incorrect as hypersensitivity involves an exaggerated, not a reduced, immune response. Choice B is incorrect because hypersensitivity is not a normal immune response to an infectious agent but rather an exaggerated one. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to desensitization, which is the opposite of hypersensitivity.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client with a newly inserted pacemaker. What is the most important nursing action post-procedure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Post-procedure, monitoring the insertion site for signs of infection is crucial because it helps in early detection of any potential complications such as infection. While educating the client about activity restrictions, monitoring the client's heart rate and rhythm, and assessing lung sounds for signs of fluid overload are important aspects of care, the immediate priority post-procedure is to prevent infection at the insertion site, which could lead to serious complications.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse recalls an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sickness. Serum sickness is characterized by the formation of immune complexes in response to certain medications or proteins. These immune complexes can deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Bronchial asthma (Choice A) is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways not primarily mediated by immune complexes. Contact dermatitis (Choice B) is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, not immune complexes. Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disease where antibodies target self-antigens, but it is not primarily mediated by immune complexes.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days