When a patient participates in a research study, the pediatric nurse's primary concern is to ensure that the:

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Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

When a patient participates in a research study, the pediatric nurse's primary concern is to ensure that the:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In research involving pediatric patients, the primary concern of the pediatric nurse is to ensure that the quality of care the patient receives will not be affected if the patient chooses to withdraw from the study (Option B). This is crucial to uphold the ethical principles of beneficence and nonmaleficence. By prioritizing the patient's well-being above research interests, nurses ensure that the child's health and safety are protected at all times. Option A is incorrect as verbal consent from the parent or guardian is not sufficient in research involving pediatric patients. Informed consent requires a thorough understanding of the study, risks, benefits, and the right to withdraw without affecting care. Option C is incorrect because while it is important for research to consider developmental needs, the primary concern should be the patient's well-being and the potential impact on care. Option D is incorrect as while research may indirectly benefit the patient population in the future, the immediate focus should be on ensuring the patient's current care remains unaffected by their participation or withdrawal. In an educational context, understanding the ethical considerations in pediatric research is crucial for nurses to advocate for their patients' best interests and ensure ethical practice in healthcare settings. Nurses play a vital role in protecting vulnerable populations such as pediatric patients and must be well-versed in research ethics to provide safe and patient-centered care.

Question 2 of 5

The clue to need a help for a child who does not respond to his or her name is by age of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric primary care, it is crucial to recognize developmental milestones and potential signs of delays early on. The correct answer to this question is D) 12 months. By this age, children typically exhibit social behaviors such as responding to their name when called. Option A) 6 months is too early to expect consistent responses to their name as infants are still developing their social skills and may not always react to verbal cues. Option B) 8 months is also premature for a reliable response to their name consistently. Option C) 10 months is getting closer to the expected age for this behavior but may still be too early for a definitive concern if a child does not respond consistently. Educationally, understanding developmental milestones and red flags for delays is crucial for healthcare providers working with children. Recognizing when a child is not responding to their name at the appropriate age can prompt further evaluation and intervention if needed to support their development. It is important to monitor these milestones closely during well-child visits and to involve early intervention services if there are concerns about a child's development.

Question 3 of 5

A 2-year-old child presents with a peeling, erythematous rash on the hands and feet. The mother reports that he has become ill tempered and refuses to walk about, preferring to lie in bed. Physical examination reveals an irritable, pale child with photophobia. Temperature is 98.5°F, heart rate is 80/minute, and respiratory rate is 23/minute. Tremor of the tongue is evident. Further history and follow-up evaluation reveal that the child's elder brothers have been playing with liquid mercury. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Acrodynia. Acrodynia, also known as pink disease, is a condition caused by exposure to mercury. The symptoms described in the question, such as peeling rash on hands and feet, irritability, tremor of the tongue, and photophobia, are characteristic of mercury poisoning in children. The history of exposure to liquid mercury by the child's brothers further supports this diagnosis. Option A) Measles presents with a different set of symptoms, including fever, cough, runny nose, and a characteristic rash starting on the face and spreading downward. Option B) Fifth disease typically presents with a "slapped cheek" rash on the face and a lacy rash on the body, along with mild symptoms like fever and malaise. Option C) Kawasaki disease presents with fever, rash, swollen lymph nodes, red eyes, and changes in the lips and mouth, but it does not typically involve exposure to mercury. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers working in pediatric primary care to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of various conditions, including rare ones like Acrodynia. Understanding the differential diagnosis for a child presenting with a rash and systemic symptoms is vital to providing appropriate care and treatment. Recognition of environmental exposures, like mercury in this case, is also important in the evaluation of pediatric patients.

Question 4 of 5

A 10-month-old child can do all the following EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) speaks inhibition word 'no.' At 10 months, children typically begin to understand and respond to simple commands, imitate sounds like "mama" or "dada," and point to objects or say their first words. However, the ability to use inhibition words like "no" typically develops later, around 18-24 months, as children start to assert their independence and understand the concept of negation. Option A is incorrect as by 10 months, children may start to say simple words like "mama" or "dada." Option B is incorrect because following a one-step command without a gesture is also a milestone around this age. Option C is incorrect as pointing to objects or saying their first words is a common developmental milestone around 10 months of age. Understanding these developmental milestones in pediatric primary care is crucial for healthcare providers to monitor and assess a child's growth and development accurately. By recognizing what is typical for a child's age, healthcare providers can identify any potential developmental delays early and provide appropriate interventions and support to promote optimal growth and well-being.

Question 5 of 5

Assume you are evaluating the specificity of the indirect fluorescence antibody test for rapid diagnosis of Campylobacter enteritis. The number of normal persons tested is 150 and the test is positive in 30 persons. The specificity of this test is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) 80%. The specificity of a test refers to its ability to correctly identify those without the condition as negative. In this case, we have 150 normal persons tested, out of which the test correctly identified 120 (150 - 30 positive results) as negative. Therefore, the specificity is calculated as (True Negatives / (True Negatives + False Positives)) * 100 = (120 / 150) * 100 = 80%. This means that the test correctly identifies 80% of normal individuals as negative. Option A) 20%, Option B) 40%, and Option C) 60% are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the specificity of the test based on the information given. Educationally, understanding the concept of specificity in diagnostic testing is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret test results and make informed decisions regarding patient care. It is essential to differentiate between true negatives and false positives to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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