ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
When a patient is hospitalized with a possible stroke, the AGACNP recognizes that the stroke most likely resulted from a subarachnoid hemorrhage when the patients family reports that the patient
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The key clinical manifestation indicating a possible subarachnoid hemorrhage in this scenario is that the patient had been complaining of a headache before losing consciousness. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a type of stroke that results from bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater surrounding the brain. Severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one's life, is a classic symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The sudden onset of a severe headache before loss of consciousness raises the suspicion for this type of stroke. Other symptoms such as mental confusion and weakness may also be present, but the headache is a crucial indicator in this case.
Question 2 of 5
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient presents with a jagged laceration on his forearm that is still open and requires sutures. The appropriate management for this patient involves local anesthesia to reduce pain, thorough cleansing of the wound to prevent infection, and wound exploration to assess for any foreign bodies that may be present. Suturing the wound is necessary to promote proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Antibiotic therapy may be indicated if signs of infection are present, but it is not mentioned in the scenario as a primary management step. Tetanus prophylaxis should also be considered given the mechanism of injury involving a dirty object.
Question 3 of 5
Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mrs. Maroldo's presentation with left lower quadrant pain, fever, elevated heart rate, history of previous episodes of similar pain that improved with antibiotics, and recent diarrhea are all concerning for diverticulitis. Diverticulitis is an infection or inflammation of small pouches that can form in the wall of the colon, known as diverticula. The symptoms typically include localized abdominal pain, fever, elevated heart rate, and changes in bowel habits such as diarrhea or constipation. The discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant indicates inflammation in that area. The presence of fever, elevated heart rate, and low blood pressure suggests an infectious process requiring urgent evaluation and treatment. Further diagnostic tests such as a CT scan may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis and assess the extent of the inflammation. Appendicitis can also present with abdominal pain, but the location of the pain in the left lower quadrant makes diverticul
Question 4 of 5
The AGACNP knows that which of the following must be evaluated as a cause of her abdominal pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Abdominal pain in pregnancy can be caused by various conditions, but spontaneous hepatic rupture is a rare but life-threatening cause that must be ruled out. Spontaneous hepatic rupture, also known as liver rupture, can occur in pregnancy, though it is extremely rare. It is associated with severe abdominal pain, hypovolemic shock, and can lead to significant maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. Therefore, the AGACNP should evaluate this possibility when assessing a pregnant patient with abdominal pain to provide timely and appropriate management.HELLP syndrome, placental abruption, and preterm labor are important considerations in the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain in pregnancy but are not specific to the life-threatening nature of spontaneous hepatic rupture.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type A aortic aneurysms require immediate surgical intervention. Type A aortic dissections involve the ascending aorta and are at high risk for complications such as aortic rupture or compromise of coronary artery blood flow. Prompt surgical repair is necessary to prevent potentially fatal outcomes. Types B, C, and symptomatic aneurysms may not require immediate surgical intervention depending on the specific patient presentation and associated risks.