ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
When a patient is diagnosed to have pneumonia, the breath sounds detected by the nurse on auscultation of the affected area would be ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is diagnosed with pneumonia, the breath sounds detected by the nurse on auscultation of the affected area would typically include fine crackles. Fine crackles are discontinuous, high-pitched crackling or rattling sounds heard during inspiration that indicate the presence of fluid in the small airways or alveoli. These crackles are caused by the movement of secretions or exudate within the bronchioles or alveoli, which is a common characteristic of pneumonia. Wheezing sounds are usually associated with conditions such as asthma, bronchitis, or COPD and are caused by narrowed airways. Stridor is a high-pitched, crowing sound that typically indicates an obstruction in the upper airway and is often heard in cases of laryngeal inflammation or foreign body aspiration. Deep and low-pitched breath sounds are more characteristic of conditions like chronic bronchitis.
Question 2 of 9
The type of epidemiologic study that is used to describe a group of persons enrolled in a study who share some characteristic of interest and who are followed over a period of time to observe some health outcome is a/an:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cohort studies are types of epidemiological studies that involve a group of individuals who share a common characteristic or experience and are followed over time to observe the development of a particular health outcome. This type of study is useful in determining the incidence of a disease, identifying risk factors, and studying the natural history of a disease. Cohort studies allow researchers to investigate the relationship between exposure and outcome by following participants forward in time. It helps in establishing causality and is particularly useful for studying rare exposures or outcomes. In contrast, cross-sectional studies involve collecting data from a population at a single point in time, experimental studies involve interventions and control groups, and case-control studies involve comparing individuals with a particular health outcome (cases) to those without the outcome (controls) retrospectively.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse should always keep which of these drugs at the bedsides of a client with myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should always keep Tensilon (Edrophonium) at the bedside of a client with myasthenia gravis. Tensilon is a fast-acting cholinesterase inhibitor that can be used for the diagnosis and emergency treatment of myasthenia crisis. It helps improve muscle strength temporarily by increasing the levels of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Administering Tensilon can help differentiate between a myasthenic crisis (marked improvement in muscle strength) and a cholinergic crisis (no improvement or worsening of muscle weakness). Keeping Tensilon at the bedside allows for prompt administration in case of a myasthenic crisis.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with crushing chest pain that lasts longer than 20 minutes, diaphoresis, and dyspnea. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is most likely experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) based on the presentation of crushing chest pain lasting longer than 20 minutes, diaphoresis, dyspnea, and ST-segment elevation on the ECG. These symptoms are consistent with the classic presentation of an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), which is a type of acute MI that is characterized by prolonged ischemia leading to myocardial cell death. In this case, the ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads indicates myocardial damage in the corresponding area of the heart supplied by the affected coronary artery. This is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow to the affected myocardium and prevent further complications.
Question 5 of 9
The INITIAL priority assessment performed by the nurse, when admitting a patients the unit after abdominal surgery is to check for ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When admitting a patient to the unit after abdominal surgery, the initial priority assessment performed by the nurse should focus on assessing the patient's respiratory function and airway. This is crucial because post-surgical patients are at risk for complications such as respiratory depression, atelectasis, and airway obstruction. Monitoring the patient's breathing pattern, oxygen saturation levels, and ensuring a patent airway are essential in preventing respiratory distress or failure. Prompt assessment and intervention in this area can help prevent respiratory complications and ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Once the patient's respiratory status is stable, the nurse can then proceed to assess other aspects such as the surgical site, skin color, temperature, and responsiveness to stimuli.
Question 6 of 9
Who should be involved in quality improvement measures?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Quality improvement measures are most effective when everyone within an organization is involved. This includes not only professional and management staff but also consumers or customers who are directly impacted by the products or services being provided. By involving everyone, a more comprehensive and diverse perspective can be gained, leading to better identification of areas for improvement and more successful implementation of quality improvement initiatives. Additionally, by involving all stakeholders, there is a greater buy-in and commitment to the process, increasing the likelihood of sustainable improvements being made.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with delayed puberty, short stature, and a childlike appearance. Laboratory tests reveal low levels of growth hormone (GH) and insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient mentioned in the scenario presents with delayed puberty, short stature, and a childlike appearance. These symptoms are indicative of growth hormone deficiency (GHD). GHD is a condition where the pituitary gland does not produce enough growth hormone, which is crucial for normal growth and development.
Question 8 of 9
The day of discharge came and Marlene 's face becomes all the more sad. When asked why, she answered she has no money to pay the bill. The BEST way of communicating her piece of advice is stating which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the best way to communicate Marlene's piece of advice would be to inform her about government agencies that provide financial assistance. This option provides a long-term solution for her financial difficulties rather than short-term fixes like asking relatives for help or paying in staggered amounts. By giving her information about available resources, you are empowering her to seek sustainable help for her financial situation. This approach focuses on addressing the root cause of her inability to pay the bill rather than temporary solutions.
Question 9 of 9
Non verbal communication is the behavior that accompanies verbal communication, which of the following is NOT an indicator of this
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonverbal communication consists of gestures, facial expressions, body language, posture, tone of voice, touch, and eye contact, among other behaviors. Option C, words representing an object, refers to verbal communication rather than nonverbal communication. Nonverbal communication is the behavior that accompanies verbal communication, providing additional layers of meaning and adding context to the spoken words. Therefore, words representing an object are not indicators of nonverbal communication.