When a nurse is educating a group of women about the risks of breast cancer, she includes which of the following common risk factor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Family history of breast cancer. This is a common risk factor for developing breast cancer because genetics play a significant role in predisposing individuals to this disease. Women with a family history of breast cancer, especially in first-degree relatives like mothers or sisters, are at a higher risk of developing breast cancer themselves. Option A) Older than 30 years of age is not a common risk factor in itself as breast cancer can occur at any age, although the risk does increase with age. Option C) African-American heritage is a demographic factor that may influence the incidence and outcomes of breast cancer but is not a direct risk factor for the disease. Option D) Breast tenderness without any sensation is not a known risk factor for breast cancer. Breast tenderness can be caused by hormonal changes or benign conditions and is not typically associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. In the educational context, it is crucial for nurses to provide accurate and evidence-based information to women regarding breast cancer risk factors. Understanding these risk factors can empower individuals to make informed decisions about their health, such as undergoing regular screenings or genetic testing if indicated. Educating women about the significance of family history in assessing personal risk for breast cancer is essential for early detection and prevention efforts.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a deeply pigmented scrotum with a rugous surface is considered normal. This indicates good blood supply and melanin production. A: Epididymides should feel smooth and distinct, not as solid nodular masses. C: Scrotal skin should be the same color or slightly darker than the body skin. D: The vas deferens should not be palpable in a normal scrotal exam.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because painful urination and purulent urethral discharge are classic manifestations of both Chlamydia and gonorrhea in male patients. Painful urination, known as dysuria, is a common symptom of these sexually transmitted infections due to inflammation of the urethra. Purulent urethral discharge is also typical and results from the infection of the urethral mucosa. Option B is incorrect as a single, firm, painless open sore on the shaft of the penis is a classic presentation of syphilis, not Chlamydia or gonorrhea. Option C is incorrect as red superficial vesicles on the shaft of the penis are characteristic of genital herpes. Option D is incorrect as a single or a cluster of wartlike growth in the anal-rectal area is typical of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV).

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because frequent urination less than 2 hours after finishing can be indicative of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). This symptom, known as urgency, is common in patients with BPH due to bladder irritation. Option A relates more to urinary flow patterns, not specifically associated with BPH. Option C pertains to urinary incontinence, which is not typically a symptom of BPH. Option D is not directly related to BPH symptoms, as constipation is not a common manifestation of this condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: normal decreases in testosterone level. At the age of 51, it is important to educate the man about the normal age-related decline in testosterone levels, which can affect various aspects of health. This information will help manage expectations and address potential symptoms. Option A is incorrect as testicular cancer risk typically decreases with age. Option B may be a concern but is not the primary focus of education for a routine physical exam. Option D (PSA testing) is more relevant for prostate health, which is not the main focus of education for a 51-year-old man's annual physical exam.