ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
When a nurse commits an error in the progress notes the BEST action she should do is to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to choose option C: put a line across the sentence, make the correction over it, and sign. This method is recommended because it maintains the integrity of the original record by showing what was initially written and clearly indicating the correction. By crossing out the error, making the correction, and signing the entry, the nurse acknowledges and takes responsibility for the mistake while ensuring the accuracy and transparency of the documentation. Option A is incorrect as crossing the error many times can make the note illegible and may not clearly indicate the correction. Option B is incorrect because using correction fluid can make the note messy and may raise suspicions of tampering with the record. Option D is incorrect as erasing with a rubber eraser can damage the document and also raise concerns about the validity of the information. In summary, option C is the best choice as it allows for a clear and professional correction without compromising the integrity of the progress notes.
Question 2 of 9
What is the primary goal of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a cardiac arrest situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of CPR is to restore spontaneous circulation and oxygenation to the body to maintain vital organ function. By performing chest compressions and rescue breaths, CPR aims to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. This is crucial to prevent brain damage and increase the chances of survival. The other choices are incorrect because CPR does not address the underlying cause of cardiac arrest (A), provide pain relief (C), or prevent further complications such as organ failure (D). The immediate focus in a cardiac arrest situation is to maintain blood flow and oxygen delivery to vital organs until advanced medical care can be provided.
Question 3 of 9
For the past 6 months, several nurses are resigning. Some have verbalized in the exit interview that there are not happy anymore. Which of the following descriptions manifest BEST, a nurse who has job satisfaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an empowered nurse feels in control and valued, leading to job satisfaction. Enthusiasm shows motivation and engagement with their work. Being ethical indicates a commitment to moral principles, contributing to a sense of fulfillment. Choice A is incorrect as competitiveness and self-centeredness do not necessarily equate to job satisfaction. Euphoria may not be a sustainable indicator of satisfaction. Choice C is incorrect because being a loner and egoistic are not traits associated with job satisfaction. Reactivity may suggest a lack of control or frustration. Choice D is incorrect as being outgoing and competitive might not directly translate to job satisfaction. Sensitivity alone does not guarantee satisfaction in the workplace.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,
Question 5 of 9
A patient with suspected community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is empirically started on antibiotic therapy pending culture results. Which of the following antibiotic regimens provides appropriate coverage for typical bacterial pathogens commonly implicated in CAP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen in CAP, while azithromycin covers atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam (choice B) are not first-line treatments for CAP. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin (choice C) cover some pathogens but not as comprehensively as ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Clindamycin and cefepime (choice D) do not provide adequate coverage for typical CAP pathogens.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens. This is recommended for managing PID because it helps treat the infection and prevent complications. Antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing PID. Surgical exploration (B) is not the initial treatment for PID. Hormonal therapy (C) is not indicated for PID management. Symptomatic treatment with NSAIDs (D) can help with pain but does not address the infection itself.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a PRIMARY) source in a research study?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a journal article about a study using large, previously unpublished databases is a primary source as it presents original research findings firsthand. It contributes new knowledge to the field. A textbook (A) compiles existing information, not original research. A doctoral dissertation (B) critiques research but is not a primary source. A published commentary (C) interprets others' findings, making it a secondary source.
Question 8 of 9
Latex allergy can be a type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity to plant proteins from the latex of rubber. It can manifest in its MOST severe form as _____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is the MOST severe form of an allergic reaction, including latex allergy. It is a systemic, potentially life-threatening reaction that can involve multiple organ systems. Symptoms can include difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, a rapid drop in blood pressure, and cardiovascular collapse. Pruritus, erythema, and swelling (choice A) are common symptoms of allergic reactions but not specific to anaphylaxis. Asthma (choice B) can be a manifestation of latex allergy but is not the most severe form. Blisters and other skin lesions (choice D) are not typical of anaphylaxis but can occur in some cases of contact dermatitis from latex exposure.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources such as toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abrasion. Abrasion is the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources like toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste. Dental caries (A) refers to tooth decay caused by bacteria. Attrition (B) is the wearing down of tooth structure due to tooth-to-tooth contact. Erosion (D) is the loss of tooth structure from acid attacks, not friction. Therefore, option C is the most fitting choice based on the description given.